ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP HỌC KỲ II- TIẾNG ANH 10 NĂM HỌC: 2018-2019
UNIT 9
Choose the word that has the underlined (letters) pronounced differently from the others. 1. A. gulf B. surface C. submarine D. current A. ocean B. undersea C. beneath D. deep A. poor B. tour C. actual D. group A. tiny B. device C. krill D. migrate A. think B. depth C. further D. breath
Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others. 6. A. maintain B. marine C. challenge D. device 7. A. investigate B. information C. submarine D. independent 8. A. organism B. environment C. temperature D. satellite 9. A. carnivore B. entrapment C. technology D. Atlantic 10. A. secret B. ocean C. migrate D. herbicide Choose the word or phrase that could best explain the underlined word or phrase. 11. If modern technology did not exist, we would never have such precious information. A. valuable B. precise C. confidential D. detailed 12. Some marine animals are dangerous to humans. A. living in the mountain B. living in the ocean C. living in the forest D. living in the house 13. The floor was covered in tiny pieces of paper. A. unimportant B. many C. very large D. extremely small 14. Sperm whales and sharks are carnivores. A. animals that live in the sea B. animals that only eat plants C. fish that aren"t born from eggs D. animals that eat meat 15. We enjoyed the warm water of the Gulf of Thailand. A. a small sea B. a large area of sea that is partly surrounded by land C. a part of the sea enclosed by a wide curve of the shore D. a large area of water surrounded by land 16. We had an accidental meeting with an old friend at the party last night. A. unpleasant B. unexpected C. unlucky D. unacceptable 17. Whales feed on krill. A. tiny shellfish B. small fish C. sea plants D. small animals 18. ___________ is the variety of different types of plant and animal life in a particular region. A. Interaction B. Herbicide C. Environment D. Bio-diversity 19. There is a large ___________ of animals that live in Nairobi National Park. A. vary B. various C. varied D. variety 20. Sperm whale population is at risk due to hunting. A. in extinction B. in danger C. on the decrease D. in fewness Choose the best option 21. You"ve been coughing a lot lately. You___________ smoke so much. A. shouldn"t B. can"t C. should D. can 22.What would Tom do if he ___________ the truth? A. would know B. has know C. knows D. knew 23. If I ___________ you, I wouldn’t buy that coat. A. am B. was C. were D. would be 24. You___________ Mark. You know it’s a secret. A. should tell B. shouldn’t tell C. couldn’t tell D. might tell 25. If Lien ___________ a raincoat, she wouldn’t get a cold. A. wears B. wore C. has worn D. had worn 26. I"m not an astronaut. If I___________ an astronaut, I ___________ my camera with me on the rocket ship. A. am/ will take B. were/ would take C. were/ had taken D. were/ would have taken 27. If I ___________ in your position, I would not accept her offer. A. am B. were C. would be D. had been 28. Tom really___________ go out. He has too much homework to do. A. can"t B. shouldn"t C. would D. should 29. What would you do if you___________ a million dollars? A. win B. won C. had won d. will win 30. If you exercised more, you ___________ feel better. A. don’t B. didn’t C. will D. would Choosetheunderlinedpartthatneedscorrection. 31. Dennisused tosmoking a lot a year ago. A B C D 32. The houseshave beendecorate very beautifully. A B C D 33. Both you or I have to help weak students of our class. A B C D 34. If I pass this exam, I would go to the university next September. A B C D 35. My car, that I have ownedfor five years, is a Ford. A B C D 36. He left her house in a hurry without to say goodbye to us. A B C D 37. If I had money, I will buy a car. A B C D 38. Would you mind lend me your bike untilnext week? A B C D 39. The match was cancelled due to the weatherwas bad. A B C D 40. Unless weworked harder, we would finish on time. A B C D Choose the correct option a, b, c or d to complete this, passage. Dolphins are known as marine (41) ______they breathe air, they are warm-blood, and they bear live young ones called (42) ______ The size of dolphin is very greatly. (43)______ smallest dolphins are just about 50 kg in weight and 1.2 meters in length (44) ______the largest one can weigh up to 8.200 kg and is 10 meters long. Dolphins are sociable creatures. They swim together in group known as (45) ______They show great ability in the water. Dolphins are interested (46) ______humans and often rescue people in the sea (47) ______are in danger. They are intelligent creatures and make sounds to (48)_____ with each other. Scientists have studied dolphins (49) _____many years and are now looking into the possibility of dolphins that are able to carry (50) _____ tasks under the sea. 41. A. fish B. creatures C. mammals D. life 42. A. babies B. calves C. young D. diets 43. A. A B. An C. The D. And 44. A. when B. as C. while D. since 45. A. currents B. flocks C. herds D. teams 46. A. in B. at C. on D. of 47. A. which B. whose C. when D. who 48. A. talk B. communicate C. contact D. connect 49. A. in B. since C. for D. during 50. A. out B. in C. of D. with
UNIT 10
Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. probably B. valuable C. bomb D.baby 2. A. campfire B. part C. animal D. natural 3. A. species B. destruction C. constant D. sickness
Choose the word that has the main stress placed differently from the others. 4. A. endanger B. disappear C. prohibit D. destruction 5. A. industrial B. environment C. agriculture D. responsible 6. A. introduce B. peacefully C. consequence D. influence Choose A,B,C,or D that best completes each unfinished sentence or substitutes the underlined part : 7. Many organizations have been set up and funds have been raised. A. established B. collapsed C. delayed D. decreased 8. Laws have been introduced to prohibit the killing of endangered animals. A. advised B. decreased C. ban D. encouraged 9. The……..is the air, water land in or on which people animals and plants live. A . consequence B. environment C. planet D. resource 10. Many national parks have been established……………endangered animals. A. to save B. to kill C. to protect D. to ban 11. Many rare…….. of animals are in danger of extinction. A. species B. classes C. being D. pairs 12. People are destroying the air by adding…….to it A. polluted B. pollutions C. polluters D. pollutants 13.Rain forest are places…… people harvest wood, delicious fruits, and powerful medicine. A. in which B. in that C. in where D. which 14. The heavy rain has caused ……….. in many parts of the country. A. crops B. floods C. water D. soil 15.The authority gathered those villagers………….they explained the importance of forests . A. who B. whom C. to whom D. to that 16. He …….. the details of his uncle’s will. A. was given B. gave C. gives D. being given For a long time, the earth ………. to be flat.
A. had believed B. had been believing C. was believed D. was been believed 6. Sperm whale populations are at risk due to hunting.
A. in extinction B. in danger C. on the decrease D. in fewness They advised that part-time workers should ………….
A. be employing B. have been employ C. employ D. be employed 20. He expected us ……….. him a job. A. offering B. to offer C. offer D. to be offered 21. More and more rare animals are..................danger of extinction. A. for B. on C. at D. in 22. Deforestation is destroying large areas of tropical rain forest. A. changing B. raising C. becoming D. damaging 23. Do you know exactly....................number of Siberian tigers in China ? A. a B. an C .the D. no article needed 24. Linda: Excuse me. Where’s the post office? Maria: ………………. A. It’s over there. B. I’m afraid not. C. Don’t worry. D. Yes, I think so. 25. Peter: How often do you go to school? Harry: ……………….. A. I go there early. B. Every day except Sunday. C. I don’t think so. D. I go there by bus. 26. A: “ Would you like to go to the movies tonight ?” - B: “…………………..” A. No I don’t like B. Yes I’d like C. Of course D. I’d love to 27. Human beings are changing the environment ............. all respects. A. at B. for C. in D. upon 28. The sick man ……………… to the hospital. A. took B. has taken C. being taken D. was taken 29. A: Why do you ask me about the party ? B: I ……………. to it. A. was not invited B. didn’t invite C. not invited D. was not been inviting 30. The people in our village are leading a …………..life. A. peace B. peaceful C. peacefully D. peacefulness
Choose the correct sentences which has the same meaning as the given one
31. help / saving / recycling / mainly / by / energy / the environment /. The environment helps saving energy mainly by recycling. Energy helps recycling mainly by the environment saving. Recycling helps the environment mainly by saving energy. Saving energy helps mainly by recycling the environment.
32.The park/ one/ America’s greatest/ wildness areas It is that the park one of America’s greatest wildness areas The park which is one of America’s greatest wildness areas It is the park one of America’s greatest wildness areas The park is one of America’s greatest wildness areas
33. at least 600,000 visitors/ come/ visit/ the park/ every year There are at least 600,000 visitors come to visit the Park every year At least 600,000 visitors who come to visit the Park every year At least 600,000 visitors come to visit the Park every year There were at least 600,000 visitors come to visit the Park every year
34. The prices of the services/ reasonable/ every pockets The prices of the services which are reasonable for every pockets As the prices of the services are reasonable for every pockets The prices of the services are reasonable for every pockets The prices of the services that are reasonable for every pockets
35. The Royal National Park/ New South Wales, Australia The Royal National Park it is in New South Wales, Australia The Royal National Park, which is in New South Wales, Australia The Royal National Park is in that New South Wales, Australia
D. The Royal National Park is in New South Wales, Australia
Choose the underlined part A, B, C, or D that needs correcting. 36. It’s difficult for me decide whether I should accept the job or not . A B C D 37.” How many rice doyou want ?” “ A kilo , please.” A B C D 38. In summer , Peter usually playsthe tennisevery day. A B C D 39. Peoplecanuse to music to express their emotions. A B C D 40. Musicplaysan importance part in our life. A B C D
Choose the word among A, B, C, D that best fits the blank in the following passage: Wild animals play an important part in the balance of nature, and (41) ….. us with many important products. Birds and other small animals help control (42) ……. Wild animals provide fur, food, and recreation. They (43) …… make our surrounding more interesting. Uncontrolled hunting (44) …… destroyed much wildlife. People have also harmed animals by destroying their habitats. Many animals, such as the passenger pigeon, have disappeared completely. Others, including the whopping crane, the blue whale, and the American alligator, are in danger of dying (45) ……. 41. A- supply B- provide C- help D- give 42. A- insects B- snakes C- butterflies D- worms 43. A- too B- either C- as well D- even 44. A- was B- had C- has D- have 45. A- away B- off C- down D- out
Read the passage carefully, thenchoose the correct answers. Wild animals (and wild plants) and the wild places where they live are seriously threatened almost everywhere. One species has become extinct in each year of this century. But many hundreds are now in danger. Lack of attention would lead to the rapid advance of the process of extinction. Already many kinds of wild animals has been so reduced in number that their role in the ecosystem is forgotten. Animals like the great apes, the whales, seals etc. thought to be in danger of extinction. But even more important, perhaps than individual kinds of animals and plants, whole habitats are in danger of vanishing: marshes are being drained, and the world forests, especially tropical forests are being cut down to satisfy man’s needs of timber and paper. What would our world be like if all the wild animals and wild plants vanished? - Would our life still exist then? 46. What would happen to the human beings if the wild life vanished? A. Many species would quickly become extinct. B. Tropical forests would be cut down. C. The human life would be seriously threatened. D. Species would go on dying out. 47. What is more important than individual kinds of animals and plants? A. The vanishing of whole habitats. B. The extinction of many species. C. The rapid advance of the process of extinction. D. Man’s need of timber and paper 48. What does the writer caution us against? A. cutting down the tropical forests. B. hunting wild animals. C. draining marshes. D. destroying our environment. 49. What would happen if we cut down forests? -.> Cutting down forests would cause …………….. A. the changes of temperature. B. the flood C. both A and B are correct. D. none are correct. 50. “To threaten” in the passage means ………….. A. to pollute C. to vanish B. to give fearto D. to poison
UNIT 11
Choose the word that has the underlined syllable pronounced different from the others. 1. A. worked B. hoped C. watched D. lived 2 A. invader B. destroy C. spend D. soldier 3. A. nature B. toxic C. plant D. contain 4 A. played B. missed C. called D. moved 5 A. nation B. tourist C. study D. return
Choose the word whose main stress is placed different from the others. 6. A. ethnic B. explore C. orphan D. fauna 7. A. dependent B. survival C. minority D. recognize 8. A. temperature B. chemical C. habit D. location 9. A. abandon B. national C. wilderness D. butterfly 10 .A. establish B. disaster C. tropical D. dependent
Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. 11. Cuc Phuong National Park __________ over 200 square kilometers of rainforest. A. contains B. gets C. hold D. covers 12. An interesting ______of this park is Orphanage, where orphaned animals are taken care of. A.advantage B.feature C.area D.zone 13. A child who has lost one or both of his parents by death is called ________ child. A. an abandoned B. an orphan C. a homeless D.orphanage 14.The _________ has threatened many of animals in this park. A.rainforest B. population C. increase D.contamination 15. They went camping in the beautiful _________ of the rainforest. A.wildlife B. wildness C.wild D.wilderness 16. This park was _________ before World War II A. set B. located C. established D. stationed 17. We were very _________at his success. A. surprised B.interested C.keen D.fond 18. One species is dependent __________ another of survival. A. on B. to C. of D.at 19. My home village is ____________ 40 kilometers north of the capital.. A. located B. held C. laid D. surrounded 20. The cattle drank from a river polluted with toxic chemicals.. A.waste B. colorless C. odorless D. poisonous 21. We _________ to the beach yesterday if the sun had been shining. A.will go B.would go C.would have gone D. had gone 22. If he _________ up earlier, he ________ to work on time. A. got / would get B. had got / would get C. would get / got D. would have got / had got 23. We wouldn’t have been to the cinema_________we hadn’t had ticket. A. if B. unless C. because of D. in spite of 24. What ________ if you had met him yesterday? A. did you do B. would you do C. would you have done D. will you do 25. They _________ the farm if they _________ enough money. A. had enlarged / would have had B. would enlarge / had had C. enlarged / would have D. would have enlarged /had had
Choose the underlined part (A,B,C or D) that needs correcting. 26. He wouldn’t have known the newsif you had told him. A B C D 27. I had gone to see you if I’d known what you were ill. A B C D 28. My brother would buy a sports car if he don’t havethe money. A B C D If I have free time next Sunday, I would visit my grandmother.
A B C D 30. If I were you, I would have forgotten about buyinga new car. A B C D Choose one sentence that best rewrites the root one. 31. He didn’t work hard, so he failed the exam. A. If he worked hard, he wouldn’t fail the exam. B. If he hadn’t worked hard, he would have failed the exam. C. He would have passed the exam if he had worked hard. D. He had passed the exam if he would have worked hard. 32. Iwas tired because I stayed up late last night. A. If I hadn’t stayed up late at night, I wouldn’t have been tired. B. I hadn’t been tired if I wouldn’t have stayed up lat. C. If I had stayed up late at night, I would have been tired. D. I wouldn’t be tired If I didn’t stay up late at night. 33. The shirt didn’t fit me so I didn’t buy it. A. If the shirt fit me, I will buy it. B. If the shirt fitted me, I would buy it. C. If the shirt had fitted me, I would have bought it. D. I didn’t buy the shirt due to it didn’t fit me. 34. He didn’t know French so he didn’t go to Paris for his holiday. A. Unless he knew French, he wouldn’t go to Paris for his holiday. B. If he knew French, he would have gone to Paris for his holiday. C. If he had gone to Paris, he would have known French. D. Had he known French, he would have gone to Paris for his holiday. 35. He worked lazily so he was sacked. A. If he hadn’t worked lazily, he wouldn’t have been sacked. B. If he workedlazily, he would be sacked. C. Unless he had worked lazily, he would have been sacked. D. If he hadn’t worked lazily, he would have been sacked. 36. He didn’t take any medicine so he feels worse now. A. If he had taken the medicine, he would have felt better now. B. If he had taken the medicine, he would feel better now. C. If he took the medicine, he would feel better now. D. Unless he took the medicine, he wouldn’t feel better now 37. We want to buy that house but we don’t have enough money. A. Unless we have enough money, we won’t buy that house. B. We would have bought that house if we had had enough money. C. If we had enough money, we would have bought that house. D. If we had enough money, we would buy that house. 38. They couldn’t go home because it stormed terribly. A. If it hadn’t stormed terribly, they could have gone home. B. If it didn’t storm terribly, they would go home. C. It stormed terribly so that they couldn’t go home D. They couldn’t go home due to terribly storm. 39. Without Jack’s help, I wouldn’t have been able to move the table. Jack hadn’t helped, but I could move the table. Jack didn’t help, so I hadn’t been able to move the table. If Jack hadn’t helped, I wouldn’t have been able to move the table. Had Jack helped, I wouldn’t have been able to move the table.
40. You wouldn’t have made many mistakes if you had been careful. A. You didn’t make many mistakes because you weren’t careful. B. You made many mistakes because you were careful. C. You were careful, so you didn’t make many mistakes. . D.You weren’t careful, so you made many mistakes.
Read the following passage and choose best answer ( A,B,C or D ) for each blank. The ostrich is the (41) _______ bird in the world, and an adult can be more than ninety kilos. Most wild ostriches live in southern Africa, but there are only a (42)_________of them left. Like all birds, ostriches have wings, (43)________ they cannot fly. They use their wings to help them (44)_________ when they are running. Ostriches can run very fast , from sixty-five to ninety kilometers an hour, so it is very difficult for (45)_________ animals to catch them. 41. A. large B. larger C. largest D. most largest 42. A.few B. little C. lot D. many 43. A. or B. and C. but D. except 44. A. direct B. change C. alter D. turn 45. A. another B. other C. others D. one other
Read the passage below and choose one best answer for each question. Parks in our country are wonderful playgrounds and millions of people visit them every year. There are places where you can camp without charge or you can rent rooms in a hotel. You can take a long walk in the forests, take boat trips, or climb mountains. You are not allowed to hunt in the park, so there are many wild animals. You can fish in the streams of most of the parks. The park keepers sometimes go with the visitors on walks to tell them about the animals, plants, and mountains. They also have programmes and talks at the campgrounds and in the hotels so that people can learn all about the park and the things that are in it. 46. We can camp in the parks _____________. A. without having to pay anything B. with a small fee C. if we rent a room in a hotel D. if we visit them every year 47. Which of the following activities is not mentioned in the passage? A. go for a walk B. go climbing C. go skiing D. go by boat 48. The word “ streams ” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ______________. A. small rivers B. ponds C. lakes D. big sea 49. The word “ them ” in line 5 refers to ______________. A. parks B. visitors C. park keepers D. animals 50. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A. There are many animals in the parks. B. We can walk and have talks with the park keepers. C. We are allowed to fish in most of the parks. D. We can hunt in the parks.
UNIT 12 Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each blank. NOT FOR JAZZ We have an old (1) __________ instrument. It is called a clavichord. It was made in Germany in 1681. Our clavichord is (2) __________ in the living- room .It has belonged to our family for a long time. The instrument was bought by my grandfather (3) __________ years ago. Recently it was damaged by a visitor .She tried (4) _________ jazz on it! She struck the keys too hard and two of the strings (5) ____________.My father was shocked. Now we are not allowed to touch it. It is being repaired by a friend of my father’s. 1. A. music B. music’s C. musical D. musician 2. A. placed B. set C. kept D. held 3. A. much B. many C. number D. lots 4. A. play B. played C. to play D. to playing 5. A. broken B. breaking C. were breaking D. were broken Read the passage below and choose one correct answer for each question. FOLK MUSIC Pop music has always been influenced by other forms of music. An important form is folk music. Folk songs are the songs composed and sung by country people .The songs may be hundreds of years old, so nobody knows who originally composed them. Modern music is often music for dancing. In Britain it was traditionally played with instruments like flute, accordion, etc. In the 1950s and 1960s the people who wrote songs and played them with acoustic guitars were also called folk singers. The songs were often “protest songs”, complaining of bad things happening in society. 6. Which form of music is pop music mainly influenced by? A. classical music B. folk music C. jazz D. rock ‘n’ roll 7. Who were folk songs composed by? A. countryside people B. city people C. modern musicians D. old singers 8. According to the passage, what is modern music often used for? A. Singing only B. playing with guitars C. dancing D. forming pop music 9. In the 1956s, what did people play folk songs with? A. pianos B. flutes C. drums D. guitars 10. Why are folk songs called “protect songs”? A. Because they are sung by country people. B. Because they are hundreds of years old. C. Because nobody knows who originally composed them. D. Because they complain about bad things happening in society.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 11. A. answer B. listen C. music D. solemn 12. A. business B. serious C. compose D. easily 13. A. news B. songs C. feelings D. delights 14. A. design B. classical C. music D. museum 15. A. summer B. suitable C. sugar D. Sunday
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 16. A. language B. solemn C. event D. rousing 17. A. African B. Westerner C. Mexican D. Vietnamese 18. A. lyrical B. favorite C. emotion D. classical 19. A. composer B. funeral C. musician D. tradition 20. A. entertain B. joyfulness C. serious C. atmosphere
Choose the best answer to complete these sentences. 21. Joe: Who are you? - Sue: _________
A. How do you do? B. Thank you, Joe C. Fine, thanks D. My name is Sue. 22. Peter: There is no instrument in the house. - Anne: It doesn’t __________
A. case B. worry C. make anything D. matter 23. Diana: You are going to fail your singing test. - Jess: ___________
A. It’s the same. B. I don’t care. C. I’m not mind at all. D. It makes nothing. 24. I don’t like this CD. Can I have_________? A. something else B. something other C. something either D. other thing 25. Chris: Where do you work? - Evan: In a studio. - Chris: ____________
A. That must be interesting B. What for? C. It is so … D. When? 26. “Did you go to the concert last night?” -“______________.”
A. Yes, I like. B. Yes, I did. C. No, I don’t D. No, I’m afraid that I have no time 27. Nam: Do you think that song can reach the top chart this week? -Minh: _____________
A. Yes, I think too. B. Yes, I think so. C. I like it. D. Really? 28. Huong: Hey, I’ve got a poster of that film. - Van: _______________
A. Where? B. Here it is. C. Oh, I love it. D. I’ve got to go. 29. Bill: Would you like to come to my party? - Jeff: Is your brother going too? - Bill: _______
A: Yes, certainly. B. Do you think so? C. Yes, we are. D. I’m thinking of it. 30. Lan: I’ve got a cold. - Ba: ________
A. Oh dear! B. My dear! C. I regret it! D. Bless you.
Choose the best answer 31. Music in general and pop music in particular makes people ______. A. excite B. exciting C. excited D. excitement 32. As a nurse, I learned to control my ______. A. hopes B. emotions C. abilities D. thought 33. Folk music ______ babies to sleep. A. makes B. wakes C. lulls D. lets 34. Music adds ______ to the atmosphere of a festival. A. sadness B. joyfulness C. disappointment D. happy 35. Van Cao is one of the most well-known ______ in Vietnam. A. actors B. authors C. musicians D. singers 36. I’ll post the card today ______ there on my mother’s birthday. A. to get it B. in order to get it C. so as it gets D. so that it gets 37. Did the teacher explain how ______ this problem. A. do we solve B. can we solve C. to solve D. solve 38. ______ is it from here to the theatre? A. How B. How far C. How long D. How often 39. Would you like to go out ______ a meal tonight, Joan? A. to B. with C. of D. for 40. We started early in order ______ miss the first part of the concert. A. to not B. not for C. not to D. for no
Identify the one underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. 41. I often switch off the heatingfor saving money. A B C D 42. Scott Joplin, a well-knownAfrican American piano player, was born in 1868 and had died in 1917. A B C D 43. We gave Nick a map so that he will be able to find the way all right. A B C D 44. Do you know what kind of music does Minh like? A B C D 45. Perhaps mankind’s firstimportance music influence was the songs of birds. A B C D Choose the one correct sentence which is built from the words provided. 46. apologize / coming / he / me / for / late / telephoned / to. A. He telephoned me for apologize to coming late. B. He telephoned me to apologize for coming late. C. He apologize me for coming late to telephoned. D. He coming to apologize me for telephoned late. 47. will / do / it / this / what / you / if / rain / afternoon ? A. If it rains this afternoon what you will do? B. What will it do if you rains this afternoon? C. What will you do if it rains this afternoon? D. If you do this afternoon what will it rains? 48. job / to / going / the / to / a / are / capital / you / find / it? A. Are you going to the capital to find a job? B. Are you to find a job to the capital going? C. Are you a job to find going to the capital? D. Are you to the capital going to find a job? 49. why / do / Tam / listening / jazz / you / enjoys / to / know ? A.You know why do Tam enjoys listening to jazz? B. Why do Tam know you enjoys listening to jazz? C. Do you know why Tam enjoys listening to jazz? D. Why Tam know do you enjoys listening to jazz? 50. often / go / concert / how / your / to / do / the / family? A. How do your family go to the concert often? B. How your often family do go to the concert? C. How go to the concert often your family do? D. How often do your family go to the concert?
UNIT 13
Choose the word which is stressed differently from therest. 1. a. cinema b. sequence c. character d. event 2. a. degree b. existence c. audience d. appear 3. a. cartoon b. detective c. tragic d. Titanic 4. a. engage b. rapid c. disaster d. instead 5. a. discover b. horror c. science d. movement
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from therest. 6. a. form b. first c. enough d. Stephen 7. a. excite b. decide c. horrify d. mind 8. a. photograph b. laugh c. plough d. enough 9. a. weigh b. high c. plough d. cough 10. a. disaster b. discover c. liner d. cinema
Choose one best option to fill in each sentence 11. There’s a love story in it, and it’s very funny. I suppose you’d call it a ____________ a. horror film b. detective film c. romantic comedy d. thriller 12. Steven Spielberg is one of the famous __________.He has made lots of films including Jaw,Jurassic Park, Schindler’s List, etc. a. stars b. directors c. actors d. script writers 13. The film contains of explicit __________of violence. a. scenes b. scents c. sceneries d. screens 14. The main ___________is played by Nicole Kidman. a. actress b. character c. director d. film maker 15. Silence of The Lambs is a/an ___________film. It makes the audience scared. a. disaster b. science fiction c. action d. horror 16. The film is ___________the 1940s, during the Second World War. a. made for b. based on c. set in d. occurred in 17. The movie Schindler’s List was ___________on the novel Schindler’s Ark written by the Australian writer Thomas Keneally. a. based b. depended c. played d. performed 18. Charlie Chaplin is considered as the greatest comic actor of the ___________. a. musical cinema b. commercial film c. romantic comedy d. silent cinema 19. When did the cinema come into ____________? a. exist b. existing c. existence d. existences 20. England is an ____________country. a. industrialize b. industry c. industrial d. industrialization
Choose the best answer. 21. “Look outside! ____________ sky is getting very dark”. - “I hope it isn’t going to be a storm”. A. A B. The C. x D. Some 22. I’d like to invite him to ____________ dinner next week if that’s OK with you. A. a B. the C. x D. an 23. “I’m going out for a walk. Have you seen my shoes?” - “Yes, they’re on _________ floor in ____________ kitchen.” A. a / the B. the / the C. a / a D. the / a 24. “Do you see the video store? I was sure it was on ____________Main Street.” “I think it’s on ___________side street, but I’m not sure which one” A. the /the B. the / a C. a / X D. X / a 25. “Do you think Margaret will take the job you offered her?” - “I don’t know. She seemed ___________in it, however.” A. interest B. interesting C. interested D. interestingly 26. The students all went to the circus yesterday. I heard it was really _____________. A. amused B. amusing C. amuse D. amusingly 27. I was ________that Jane couldn’t come to the party. Her boss made her work overtime. A. disappointing B. disappointedly C. disappoint D. disappointed 28. What a terrible football game! I thought it was ______________. A. delightful B. delighting` C. delight D. delighted 29. It was not until 2:30 that everyone ____________ leave the stadium. A. can B. could C. will D. must 30. It ____________ not until last summer we had a holiday. A. is B. has been C. had been D. was
Choose the sentence which has a similar meaning to the sentence printed before. 31. The clown amused the children. The clown had the children amusing. The children found the clown amusing. The clown made the children amuse. The children were amusing the clown.
32. The film excited us all a lot. The film had a lot excitement. We were excited about all of the film. The film made all of us feel a lot of excited. All of us were excited about the film.
33. He didn’t come until 6 p.m. a. It was not until 6 p.m. that he came. b. He stayed until 6 p.m. c. It was 6 p.m., but he didn’t come. d. He came before 6 p.m. 34. Horror films terrify my little sister. a. My little sister is terrifying of horror films. b. My little sister is terrified of horror films. c. My little sister thinks horror films are terrified. d. Horror films are terrified to my little sister. 35. I delight in reading English books. I hate reading English books. I am interested in reading English books. I am tired of reading English books. I am not excited at reading English books.
36. We didn’t meet them until 2007. a. It was not until 2007 that we meet them. b. It was not until 2007 that we met them. c. It was 2007 that we didn’t meet them. d. Not until 2007 we met them.
Choose the best option. 37 _______ men are often paid more than _________ women for _______ the same job. a. Ø – the –the b. Ø - Ø - the c. The-the-the d. Ø - Ø - Ø 38. At first she was train to be _________ scriptwriter, but later she worked as ________ director assistant in a studio. a. a- a b. the-the c. a-the d. the-a 39. ________ sun gives off ____________ heat and ___________ light. a. Ø - Ø - Ø b. The-the-a c. The -. Ø - Ø d. A-a-a 40. Are you going to ___________ countryside for __________ week? a. A-a b. the-a c. the-an d. the - Ø
Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. Modern cinema audiences expect (41) _________ plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes (42) ____________ are known as stunts are usually (43) __________ by stuntmen who are specially trained to dangerous things (44) ___________. Anyone can crash a car, but if you are (45) ____________ a film, you have to be extremely precise, sometimes you drive and stop right in front of the camera and film crew. At (46) ___________ early stage in the (47) ___________, an expert stuntman is (48)_____________ to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can against the words of the director, (49) ____________ he will usually only (50) ____________ this in the regards of safe. 41. a. see b. to see c. seeing d. seen 42. a. which b. whom c. of that d. those 43. a. produced b. performed c. cancelled d. interfered 44. a. safe b. safety c. safely d. safeness 45. a. firing b. working c. doing d. acting 46. a. a b. an c. the d. no article 47. a. produce b. product c. production d. productive 48. a. called in b. came in c. checked in d. taken in 49. a. despite b. in spite of c. due to d. because 50. a. to do b. does c. do d. done
UNIT 14
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. group B. danger C. together D. dog Question 2: A. club B. compete C. school D. bicycle Question 3: A. circle B. center C. coconut D. century
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that isclosest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 4: Nancy: “It’s so hot.” - Nick: “I’ll open the window.” A. Nick predicts he will open the window. B. Nick offers to open the window. C. Nick promises to open the window. D. Nick is going to open the window. Question 5: You don’t need your umbrella today. I don’t think it will rain. A. It won’t rain because you don’t need your umbrella. B. You don’t need your umbrella although it will rain. C. You don’t need your umbrella so it won’t rain. D. It won’t rain so you don’t need your umbrella. Question 6: I am sure you won’t like that restaurant. A. I know you are going to like that restaurant. B. I know you will not like that restaurant. C. I recommend you to like that restaurant. D. You are likely to like that restaurant.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet toindicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 7 to 11 Over the (7)past 25 years, football has not only taken (8)place as the world’s major game in an ephemeral world but has also blossomed in other sides of society, commerce and politics. Football, more than (9)any other factor, has developed through regions, people and nations. With (10)approximately two hundred million active players it now (11)attracts a substantial chunk of the leisure industry, having opened up new markets for itself and for the rest of the business affairs. Question 7: A. past B. pass C. late D. recent Question 8: A. origin B. place C. root D. cause Question 9: A. the B. any C. some D. several Question 10: A. approximately B. totally C. accurately D. completely Question 11: A. attracts B. comprises C. constitutes D. contacts
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to eachof the following questions. Question 12: My sister is really mean. I try borrowing her some money but I know _______. A. she will lend me. B. she is going to lend me. C. she is certain to lend me. D. she won’t lend me. Question 13: Which is the best way to offer your visitor a cup of tea? A. Why don’t you have a cup of tea? B. Would you mind having a cup of tea? C. Could you have a cup of tea? D. Will you have a cup of tea?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part thatneeds correction. Question 14: An extra-time penalty gave Barcelona a last gasp winnerover Chelsea.
A B C D Question 15: The skyis getting really dark and it’ll storm.
A B C D Question 16: We are going to study tonight until we will finish this chapter.
A B C D Question 17: Carlos Dominguez placed the ball careful in front of the goal mouth and A B C suddenly turned, ran and kicked. D Question 18: The government is trying to tackleviolent on the football terraces.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to eachof the following questions. Question 19: Where was the 2006 World Cup held? A. supported B. maintained C. possessed D. organized Question 20: Founded in 1930 with just 13 teams, the tournament now attracts more than 140 countries. A. Established B. Produced C. Started D. Erected Question 21: A _______ is a person or group competing in a final. A. final B. finally C. finalize D. finalist Question 22: The loser will be out of the ________ . A. round B. tournament C. meeting D. tour Question 23: They were the first Turkish team to win a major cup ______ . A. contest B. challenge C. champion D. competition Question 24: The match was eventually won on _____ A. penalties B. goals C. draw D. score Question 25: She brought _____ to her country as an Olympic medal-winner . A. victory B. champion C. promotion D. honour Question 26: How many countries took part in the first World Cup? A. interested B. participated C. completed D. co-operated Question 27: Visconti _______ one goal himself and made two for Lupo. A. made B. kicked C. scored D. played Question 28: Britain has not lifted the _____ since it last hosted the event. A. prize B. award C. trophy D. victory Question 29: The train leaves at 8.58, so we _______ be in Scotland by lunchtime. A. can B. may C. will D. are going to Question 30: I think Germany ____ the gold cup in the next World Cup. A. will win B. is winning C. is going to win D. wins Question 31: The team _____ ready for the next year’s World Cup clash with Italy. A. will soon B. are being C. will being D. are going to be Question 32: Apparently, they _____ a stadium that ____ over 50,000 spectators in the town. A. will build / will seat B. are going to build / will seat C. are building / seats D. will build / is seating Question 33: Tom: “I’d love to watch the final, but I haven’t got a ticket.” Peter: “Well, I’ve got two free tickets to the match. I ___you one.” A. am going to give B. give C. am giving D. will give Question 34: Manchester United ____ a home game this week. A. will play B. are playing C. are to play D. play Question 35: That bag looks heavy. I _____ help you with it. A. will B. can C. must D. should Question 36: Look out! The tree ______. A. will fall B. will be falling C. is going to fall D. falls Question 37: Unless it stops raining, _____ the tennis tournament. A. they’ll cancel B. they cancel C. they’d cancel D. they’d have cancelled Question 38: Don’t worry about the letter. I’m sure you ____ it soon. A. are finding B. won’t find C. will find D. are going to find Question 39: You said that you _____ leave work early today. A. will B. are going to C. were going to D. go to Question 40: Ann: “Are you going to visit Britain next month?” Kim: “Yes,____________” A. I am B. I do C. I like D. I can Question 41: Maria: “I’m taking my end term examination tomorrow” Sarah: “______________” A. Good luck B. Good day C. Good time D. Good chance Question 42: Ann: “Do you think you’ll get the job?” – Mary: “_____” A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. I think not D. Yes, that’s right
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 43: A. champion B. attraction C. billion D. audience Question 44: A. runner B. country C.around D. sporting Question 45: A. final B. eventC. trophyD.winner
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet toindicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50. Cricket World Cup is the most awaited event in the world of Cricket. It is by far the biggest event for every cricketer and all cricket fans. The ICC Cricket World Cup is the premier Championship of ODI (One Day International) cricket. The tournament is held every four years. It is the fourth largest and fourth most viewed sport event. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations and other who qualify through World cup Qualifiers contest the tournament. In all the tournaments held till date, Australia is the most successful of the five teams who have claimed ICC world cup trophy. Australia won the championship 4 times, whereas West Indies and India won twice, while Pakistan and Sri Lanka claimed once each. Question 46: How often is the Cricket World Cup held? A. Every two years. B. Every four years. C. Every five years. D. Every year. Question 47: Which is NOT true about Cricket World Cup? A. It is held every four years B. It is the fourth largest sport event. C. It is the fourth most viewed sport event. D. Sri Lanka won twice Question 48: In line 1, the word “it” refers to A. Cricket World Cup B. event C. the world D. Cricket Question 49: According to the passage, who contest the tournament? A. Anyone who is cricketer or cricket fan. B. Australian. C. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations. D. Ten test-cricket-playing and ODI-playing nations and other who qualify through World cup Qualifiers
SOME SAMPLES TEST FOR THE 2ND SEMESTER ĐỀ 1 A. Multiple choice: * Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words. A. compete B. event C. football D. postpone A. history B. audience C. cinema D. existence
* Choose the best answer among A, B, C or D to complete each sentence: The little boy ………….. name was Timmy was crying.
A who B. whose C. which D. whom The house ………... we are going to buy is in poor condition.
A whose B. who C. which D. whom There is ……….. supermarket in our town.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Charlie Chaplin, ……….was a comedian, was best-known for his work in silent films.
A. who B. that C. which D. whose The movie was so …….. that we couldn’t sleep last night.
A. thrill B. thrilling C. thrilled D. thriller I was very disappointed ………... his behavior.
A. of B. with C. in D. at I still can’t believe it! my bicycle ………. last night.
A. was stolen B. was stealing C. stolen D. stole I need to get a part-time job ………… earn some money for my school expenses. .
A. for B. so as to C. in order D. for to Look at those black clouds. It……….soon
A. will rain B. has rained C. is going to rain D. rains I…….you if I ……… the news.
A. would tell - knew B. tell - will know C. would - know D. tell - knew I think you …………apologize for your behavior.
A. should B. ought C. shall D. have “………….” - “Rock ‘n’ roll”.
A. What kind of musical instrument can you play? B. What kind of music do you like? C. Which is your favorite music band? D. Who is playing the guitar? Scotland met Walesin the final at Twickenham.
A. at the end B. in the closing match C. in the last match D. in the decisive match ………. is the variety of different types of plant and animal life in a particular region.
A. Interaction B. Herbicide C. Environment D. Biodiversity “Would you like…………… lunch with us?” - “Yes, I’d love to”
A. have B. to have C. having D. had A: I still need to buy some souvenirs before we leave.
B: …………. go shopping after dinner! A. How about B. Shall we C. Let’s D. Why not Don’t worry about the letter. I’m sure you …… it soon.
A. are finding B. won’t find C. will find D. are going to find *Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correction. I would have called you ifI knewyour number.
A B C D It was not until the teacher came that the students didn’t stoptalking.
A B C D
* Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. A. missed B. played C. called D. moved A. arrives B. hopes C. starts D. likes
* Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C, or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage: The last World Cup of the 20th century were perfectly held in France in June and July 1998. This was the first time in the World Cup history that 32 nations teams took part in the finals. And this was also the first time after so many years France proved that they could………(24)……… Brazilian giants in the final match organized on July 13th in Paris. Although Brazil was the team with most superstars. France almost seized the……(25)…. of the game. Ronaldo could not do anything to……(26)…. French strikers and midfielders from scoring goals. Zidane …(27)………two goals in the 27th and 46th minutes and Emmanuel Petit scored the third goal for France in the last moment of the match when Brazilian giants were completely …(28)………… This was the first time France became the World Cup winners. A. beat B. oppose C. compete D. struggle A. support B. control C. protection D. organization A. avoid B. prevent C. beat D. win A. made B. scored C. kept D. won A. dissatisfied B. furious C. hopeless D. frightened.
* Do the following sentences as directed in parentheses: In spite of the hot weather, they went jogging in the park.
(Rewrite the following sentence, using “Although”). ⇨…………………………………………………… I didn’t sleep until midnight.
(Rewrite the following sentence, using “It was not until ……. that …….). ⇨…………………………………………………… The trip is exciting.
(Rewrite the following sentence, using “excited”). ⇨…………………………………………………… He bought the laptop at the supermarket.
(Write the question for the underlined words). ⇨…………………………………………………… They haven’t stamped the letter.
(Change the following sentence into the passive voice). ⇨…………………………………………………… We didn’t hurry, so we missed the train.
(Rewrite the following sentence, using Conditional sentence Type 3). ⇨…………………………………………………… ĐỀ 2 I.Phonetics: (1,0m) * Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest: 1.a.endangered b.threatened c.established d.arrived 2.a.events b.programs c.humans d.bands
* Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the others: 3.a.existence b.industry c.character d.audience 4.a.compete b.tournament c.produce d.participate
Choose the underlined part that needs correction II. Grammar and Vocabulary: (5,0ms) 1.If I ____ in your position, I would not accept her offer. a.had been b.am c.were d.have been 2.She suggested that he ___ the situation carefully. a.should consider b.considers c.is considering d.has considered 3.A ____ is a naval vessel that can operate under water as well as on the surface. a.organism b.photograph c.submarine d.satellite 4.Although sperm whales can be found in all oceans, they prefer the water with high ____ populations. a.mammal b.organism c.turtle d.squid 5.More and more trees ___________ down for wood by farmers. a.have been cut b.has cut c. have cut d.are cutting 6. ____ weight, you should combine effectively exercise with a healthy diet. a.To be lost b. Being lost c.Losing d.To lose 7. The students were ____ in taking a field trip to the NationalMuseum. A. interested B. excited c.bored D.worried 8.They felt bitterly disapponited ____ the result of the game. a.for b.with c.in d.from 9.There will be a day ____ when you feel sorry about what you do today. a.which b.when c.that d.why 10.People are making ___ film based on the event that happened in 1975. a.no article b.the c.a d.some 11. If Mr. Black weren’t late for work so often, he wouldn’t have lost his job. a b c d 12.It was not until the guard discovered the bomb that the crowd learn about the terror. a b c d 13.There are a lot of black clouds in the sky. It ________ rain. a.will be b.have to c.can be d.is going to 14.A: Oh, no! I wasn’t watching the time. I missed my bus. B : That’s okay. I _______ you a ride home. a.want to give b.will give c.am going to give d.really like to give 15.A: How often do you practice playing the violin?B : _____ a.Every evening b.Twice a day c.Sometimes d.All are correct 16.Norman won the first prize in the cookery competition. a.contest b.occasion c.course d.organization 17.A :What did your grandfather do after his retirement? B : _____ a.He was nice. b.He worked as a gardener. c.He’s an honored guest d.He will join the football club 18.The match will ____ in ten minutes. a.set up b.break in c.take place d.put on 19.Tokyo, ____ was badly damaged in World War II, has recovered quickly. a.who b.whose c.that d.which 20.The little boy ___ parents were killed in the accident was sent to an orphanage. a.whose b.whom c.who d.that
III. Reading: (1,0m) *.Reading : Read the text and choose the best answers For centuries, people have been playing kicking game with a ball. The game of soccer developed from some of these early games. The English properly gave soccer its name and its first set of rules. In European countries, soccer is called football or association football. Some people believe that the name “soccer” came from “assoc”, an abbreviation for the word association. Others believe that the name came from the high socks that the players wear. Organized soccer games began in 1863. In soccer, two teams of eleven players try to kick or head the ball into their opponent’s goal. The goal keeper who tries to keep the ball out of the goal, is the only player on the field who is allowed to touch the ball with his hands. The other players must use their feet, heads and bodies to control the ball. Every four years, soccer teams around the world compete for the World Cup. The World Cup competition started in 1930. Brazil is the home of many great soccer players, including the most famous player of all, Pele. With his fast footwork, dazzling speed, and great scoring ability, during his 22 years in soccer, he scored 1,281 goals and held every major record for the sport. People in more than 140 countries in the world play soccer. It is the national sport of the most European and Latin American countries. Soccer is definitely the world’s most popular sport. 1.How many World Cup tournaments were held until 2011 ? a.18 b.20 c.17 d.19 2.Who can play soccer with hands in the team ? a.player b.defender c.scorer d.goal keeper 3.What must the players do in each game ? a.They use their feet, heads and bodies to control the ball. b.They must keep and kick the ball. c.The players must run fast after the ball. d.The players must try to kick or head the ball into their opponent’s goal. 4.The word “association”could be best replaced by which of the following ? a.connection b.corporation c.profession d.inception
V.Writing: (3,0 ms) *.Rewrite the sentences with the words given: 1.The government will pass the new laws to restrict wildlife destruction. - (turn into Passive Voice) 2. I was tired because I stayed up late last night. - If ……………………………………………….. 3.It took us eight and a half hours from here to Australia by plane. - (make question) 4. We didn’t recognize him until he came into the light. - It ………………. 5.I find horror films really terrifying. -I am ………… 6.In spite of his bad cough, he keeps on smoking. - Although ……….
ĐỀ 3 I. PHONETICS: * Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. A . stopped B. looked C. laughed D. wanted A. sea B. singer C. sugar D. said
Choose the word that has stress pattern different from that of the other words A. history B. audience C. cinema D. existence A. championship B. tournament C. committee D. continent
Choose A, B, C or D that best suits meaning of the sentences Human infants have a gestation periodof nine months.
A. the time during which a human baby develops inside its mother B. the time when a stomach digests food C. the time of eating food D. the time of growing up What would Tom do if he ......................... the truth?
A. would know B. has know C. knows D. knew - A: “One of my teeth is loose”. - B: “I think ______________”
A. you should go to to dentist B. he should go to to dentist C. should go to to scientist D. you should brush your teeth . Those boys...................play football on the street. It"s very dangerous.
A. should B. shouldn’t C. can’t D. needn’t Many new roads......... in this city now.
A. build B. are built C. are building D. are being built “Can you turn the radio down? I need to study for my math quiz this morning”. “________”.
A. Certainly. B. Not at all. C. Yes, I can. D. You’re welcome. . “Robert ............ famous someday. He has appeared in three movies ready.” I’m sure he .......... a star.
A. will be/ will be. B. will be/ is going to be C. is/ will be D. is going to. be/ will be The earth, ......... is the fifth largest planet in the solar system, is the planet from the sun.
A. who B. which C. that D. whom The machine ......... I have to use in my job cost over a million pounds.
A. who B. which C. that D. whose 1 bought this new software ............ Chinese.
A. for learning . B. learning C. to learn D. learned Do you like folk music? ________________
A. Yes, I don’t. B. No, I like it a lot. C. Yes, I love it. D. It’s nice. I was ............ that Jan couldn"t come to the party." "Her boss made her work overtime."
A. disappointing B. disappointedly C. disappoint D. disappointed Don"t forget we"re meeting on ............Friday for ............ lunch.
A. a/ a B. a/ θ C. θ / the d/ θ / θ I prefer love story films ____ thrilled ones .
A. from B. with C. to D. than "Wow! This suitcase is heavy," `I ......... it for you. Give it to me."
A. will carry B. am carrying C. am going to carry D. carry Scotland met Walesin the finalat Twickenham.
A. at the end B. in the closing match C.inthe last match D. in the decisive match “Do you remember Mrs Goddard ...........English composition?.” “I certainly do”
A. who taught us B. whom taught us C. that taught us D. whose teaching is
Choose the underlined part in each sentence (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting I would havecalled you if I could haveknown your number
A B C D It was not until his father came home that he didn’t do his homework.
A B C D
Read the dialogue and fill in the blank by choosing A, B, C or D. Organized football games began in 1863. In football, two (24)……………. of eleven players try to kick or head the ball into the goal of the other team. The goal keeper, (25)…………….. tries to keep the ball out of the goal, is only player on the field who can touch the ball with his or her hands. The other players must use their feet, heads and bodies (26)……………. the ball. Every four years, football teams around the world (27)…………….. for the World Cup. The World Cup competition started in 1930. Brazil is the home of many great football players, including the most famous player of all, Pele’. With his fast dazzling speed, Pele’ played for many years in Brazil and then in New York. People in more than 140 countries (28) …………. the world play football. It is definitely the world’s most popular sport. A. teams B. champions C. groups D. players A. whom B. who C. which D. that A. drive B. watch C. control D. make A. fight B. compete C. play D. battle A. whole B. through C. all over D. on
Rewrite the following sentences using the words given.
The police found two children in the forest.
Two children……………………………… 30.My father didn"t earn much money, so life wasn"t easy for us. if ……………………………………………. 31.My favorite musician is Trinh Cong Son. ( make question) …………………………………………………….. 32.She weren"t allowed to open her presents until her birthday. It was not until ……………………………………………….. 33.This is frustrating remarks (nan long) The remarks ……………………………………………………… 34.Nancy told me the secret, despite having promised not to do so. Although ………………………………………………………….
ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP KIỂM TRA HK 2 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11 NĂM HỌC: 2018-2019
UNIT 9 I. PRONUNCIATION: Choose the word whose underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. A. post B. busy C. swim D. spacious A. best B. text C. exist D. letter A. commune B. punctuality C. communication D. distribution A. express B. recipient C. secure D. messenger A. satisfaction B. facsimile C. punctuality D. spacious A. noisy B. subscribe C. service D. graphics A transfer B. newspaper C. thousand D. relatives A. equipped B. delivered C. transferred D. received A. helps B. provides C. documents D. texts A. stop B. post C. offer D. from
II. VOCABULARY: Circle the letter before the word that can be best replaced with the word(s) in italic. 11. Thanh Ba Post Office is equipped with advanced technology. A. modern B. outdated C. fashionable D. beautiful 12. Thanh Ba Post Office has a spacious and pleasant front office. A. cramped B. large and with a lot of space C. narrow D. safe 13. Our post office offers the best services with a well-trained staff. A. rule B. impolite C. beautiful D. qualified 14. Your EMS mail will be delivered in the shortest possible time. A. European Monetary System B. Enhanced Messaging Service C. Express Mail Service D. Emergency Mail Service 15. Express Money Transfer is a speedy and secure service for transferring money in less than 24 hours. A. fast and fixed B. fast and protected C. slow and safe D. useful and confident 16. The Message Call Service helps you to notify the recipient of the time and place to receive the call. A. see B. watch C. write D. tell 17. If you want your favorite newspapers to be delivered to your house early in the morning you should subscribe to them. A. pay money B. write a letter C. make a call D. send e-mail 18. The staff of that post office are always thoughtful and courteous to customers. A. kind and beautiful B. helpful and friendly C. helpful and polite D. nice and arrogant 19. If you want to send a document and do not want to lose its original shape, send it by fax machine. A. first B. changed C. modern D. good 20. You can save money if you send a parcel which is under 15 kg. A. letter B. package C. box D. present 21. The problem______ never occurred. A. I hadn’t expected it B. that I had expected it C. who I had expected D. I had expected 22. In 1850, Yale University established Sheffield Scientific School,_______. A. engineers were educated there B where engineers were educated. C. in which engineer educated D. where were engineers educated 23. It was the ragtime pianist Scott Joplin__ the Maple Leaf Rag, perhaps the best known of all ragtime tunes. A. wrote B. the writer of C. who wrote D. writing 24. A keystone Species is a species of plants and animals__ absence has a major effect on an ecological system. A. that its B. its C. whose D. with its
25. William Samuel Johnson,________ helped write the Constitution, became the first president of Columbia College in 1187. A. whom he had B. who had C. and he had D. had 26. My mother, ___________ , enjoys hill walking. A. whom is in her seventies B. that is in her seventies C. which is in her seventies D. who is in her seventies 27. She’s one of the kindest people________ I’ve ever known. A. that B. whose C. who D. which 28. Where is the house________? A. where they are living B. which they are living C. where they are living there D. where they are living in 29. She lives in the house_________. A. which has the red door B. has the red door C. that with the red door D. with its red door 30. Mark Twain is an author________ I like best. A. his books B. that books C. the book of whom D. whose books IV. READING: Choose the sentence that is the best combination of each of the following pairs: 31. The elderly are usually thought to be passive. They can actually have active lives. A. The elderly, thought to be passive, can actually have active lives. B. The elderly can actually have active lives that are usually thought to be passive. C. The elderly thought to be passive can actually have active lives. D. The elderly lives which are thought to be passive can actually be active. 32. Shoes are the products. The company exported only these products to Mexico. A. The company exported only shoes to Mexico, that are the only products. B. Shoes are the only products to be exported to Mexico. C. Shoes, which are the only products to be exported to Mexico. D. The only products to be exported to Mexico, which are shoes. 33. Tommy is late. Does anybody know why? A. Does anybody know what the reason why is Tommy late? B. Does anybody know what the reason why Tommy is late? C. Does anybody know the reason why is Tommy late? D. Does anybody know the reason why Tommy is late? 34. She is the advisor. We got those recommendations from her. A. She is the advisor, who we got those recommendations from. B. She is the advisor whom we got those recommendations from her. C. She is the advisor from that we got those recommendations. D. She is the advisor from whom we got those recommendations. 35. My sister is the only member in my family. She holds a Ph.D. degree in Physics. A. My sister is the only member in my family to hold a Ph.D. degree in Physics. B. The only member in my family is my sister, who holds a Ph.D. degree in Physics. C. The only member in my family which holds a Ph.D. degree is my sister. D. My sister, who holds a Ph.D. degree in Physics, is the only member in my family. 36. Few people know about C.A.Lindburgh. He was the first person who flew across the Atlantic Ocean. A. Few people know about C. A. Lindburgh, the first person flying across the Atlantic Ocean. B. Few people know about C. A. Lindburgh, that was the first person to fly across the Atlantic Ocean. C. Few people know about C. A. Lindburgh, who was the first person flown across the Atlantic Ocean. D. Few people know about C. A. Lindburgh, who was the first person to fly across the Atlantic Ocean. 37. The Mountain Region is in the Great Himalayan Range. It makes up the northern part of Nepal. A. The Mountain Region which makes up the northern part of Nepal is in the Great Himalayan B. The Mountain Region in the Great Himalayan Range makes up the northern part of Nepal. C. The Great Himalayan Range, which makes up the northern part of Nepal, is the Mountain Region. D. The northern part of Nepal, made up by the Great Himalayan Range is the Mountain Region. 38. This is the best book on the market. It was written for university students. A. This is the best book written for university students, which are on the market. B. This is the best book to be writing for university students on the market. C. This is the best book to be written for university students on the market. D. This is the best book that is on the market, which is written for university students. 39. I have a passion for winter. It is usually a sad season for many people. A. I have a passion for winter when is usually a sad season for many people. B. I have a passion for winter, which is usually a sad season for many people. C. I have a passion for winter, when is usually a sad season for many people. D. I have a passion for winter which is usually a sad season for many people. 40. That is the student . I borrowed his book last week . A. That is the student I borrowed whose book last week. B. The student whose book I borrowed that is . C. That is the student whose book I borrowed last week D. That is the student, whose book I borrowed last week
UNIT 10 I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. 1. A. small B. supply C. sure D. species 2. A. swimmer B. sword C. swallow D. swam 3. A. parks B. animals C. planets D. environments II. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest. 4. A. endanger B. disappear C. prohibit D. destruction 5. A. extinct B. human C. species D. planet III. Choose the correct answers: 6. Many organizations have been set up and funds have been raised. A. established B. collapsed C. delayed D. decreased 7. Because of people’s _____with the environment, many kinds of plants and animals are becoming rare. A. supply B. survival C. influence D. interference 8. We all regard pollution as a_______ matter to human beings. A. serious B. seriously C. seriousness D. serio-comic 9. Garbage is considered to be some kind of ______. A. pollute B. pollutants C. pollution D. polluting 10. The ____ is the air, water and land in or on which people, animals and plants live. A. consequence B. environment C. planet D. resource 11. “ Do you think it’s going to rain?” – “ __________.” A. I hope not B. I don’t hope C. I don’t hope that D. I don’t hope so 12. “ I think we should take a shower instead of a bath to save energy.” – “ ______.” A. Yes, we should. B. Yes. You are good C. No, I don’t like D. Great! Let’s do that 13. “________ .” – “All right.” A. We will make posters on energy saving and hang them around our school. B. Why can’t we make posters on energy saving and hanging them around our school? C. How about making posters on energy saving and hanging them around our school? D. I’d like to make posters on energy saving and hang them around our school. 14. Can you turn the lights off before leaving the room?” – “______” A. Yes, I can B. No, I can’t C. Yes, of course D. No, I don’t.
15. “ ________ ! Can you help me with this?” A. Sorry B. Excuse me C. Pardon D. My apology 16. When he ______, we ______ dinner. A. arrived/having B. was arriving/had C. arrived/ were having D. had arrived/had 17. While they ______ chess, we __________ the shopping. A. playing/doing B. played/did C. were playing/doing D. were playing/ were doing 18. Today is Thursday and she ____ late twice this week. She _____ late yesterday and on Monday. A. is/was B. has been/is C. has been/ was D. has been/had been 19. He __________ in the same house since 1975. A. has lived B. is living C. lived D. had lived 20. Last month my brother _______ me his photos. He _______ me his photos every year. A. sends/sent B. sent/ sends C. sent/sent D. sends/sends 21. The boy ________ I lent my money is poor. A. to that B. to who C. to whom D. whom 22. The knife ________ we are cutting bread is very sharp. A. with that B. which C. with which D. that 23. Cathy is trustworthy. She’s a person upon _________ you can always depend. A. who B. whom C. that D. X 24. The man ____ I introduced you to last night may be the next president of the university. A. whom B. that C. X D. all are correct. 25. Your career should focus on a field _________ you are generally interested. A. on which B. in which C. which D. that 26. What exactly is the influence of television ____________ children? A. on B. in C. at D. with 27. I have two brothers, ________ are professional athletes. A. two of which B. two of whom C. both of whom D. two of them 28. One of the people _________ I admire most in the history of the world is Gandhi. A. that B. which C. whose D. of them 29. Sunday is the day _______ which we usually go fishing. A. during B. at C. in D. on 30. The speech _______ we listened last night was informative. A. to which B. which to C. to that D. that
IV. Choose the underlined part among A, B, C or D that needs correcting. 31. The man whom remained in the office was the manager. A B C D 32. 1975 was the year in when the revolution took place. A B C D 33. Mr. Brown, that teaches me English, is coming today. A B C D 34. The car who I bought used to be my father’s. A B C D 35. You would be welcome to join our staff if you change your mind. A B C D V. Choose the correct answer 36. The man is my teacher. I am grateful to him. A. The man whom I am grateful to him is my teacher. C. The man is my teacher who I am grateful B. The man whom I am grateful to is my teacher D. The man to him I am grateful is my teacher. 37. Ngoc is friendly. We are talking about her. A. Ngoc, we are talking about, is friendly. C. Ngoc, about her we are talking, is friendly. B. Ngoc, whom we are talking about is friendly. D. Ngoc, about whom we are talking, is friendly.
38. That is the student. I borrowed his book last week. A. That is the student I borrowed whose book last week. B. The student whose book I borrowed that is. C. That is the student, whose book I borrowed last week. D. That is the student whose book I borrowed last week. 39. The book is very expensive. My father is interested in it. A. The book in which my father is interested is very expensive. B. The book which in my father is interested is very expensive. C. The book which my father is interested is very expensive. D. The book in that my father is interested is very expensive. 40. Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house. A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house. B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house. C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house. D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house. VI. Read the test and choose the correct option to fill in the gaps. In spite of all warnings, we are still not looking after our planet. Look what is happening to our forests. We are cutting them ___ (41) at an alarming rate. If we keep on doing this, many animals and plants will ___(42) extinct. Rare ___(43) , such as the mountain gorilla, are already in ___(44) . More will follow. Forests are important for another reason, too. They help to slow the rate of global warming. Trees soak up gases like carbon dioxide, which are given ___ (45) by power stations and factories. They also produce oxygen, and act as the lungs of the world. 41. A. up B. in C. off D. down 42. A. go B. get C. become D. result 43. A. species B. tribes C. races D. specialities 44. A. threat B. danger C. fact D. troubles 45. A. off B. up C. out D. over
VII. Read the passage and choose the correct answers: The scarcity of tigers and African elephants is more and more serious. They are endangered because poachers hunt them in order to sell tiger pelts and elephant ivory. At least 4,000 elephants are killed each year in order to meet the global demand for ivory, which is used to make carvings, jewelry and other products although it is illegal to sell ivory since 1989 anywhere. “Americans should be aware that there is still a problem with elephant poaching and loss to the illegal ivory trade,” Ginette Hemley, Fund’s vice president for species conservation, told The Washington Post in September. And so our message is “Don’t buy it, and don’t take that chance”. A Wildlife Fund report states that the United States seized 8,300 illegal ivory items between 1995 and 2002. Each week there are about 1,000 ivory auctions, the report said. As for tigers, their parts are used in traditional Chinese medicine. Tiger bones are used as a pain reliever in traditional medicine. Even tiger’s whiskers are sold because some people in Asia think they are a good-luck charm – like a rabbit’s foot in the United States. “ Part of our job is education,” said Professor Dillon. “ The other part is law enforcement. So we have more than one strategy.” 46. Hunters poach tigers for their _______ A. ivory B. pelts C. carving D. jewelry 47. Which sentence is NOT true. A. Elephants are hunted for their ivory. B. It is legal to sell ivory everywhere. C. There are about 4,000 elephants killed each year. D. Elephant ivory is used to made jewelry. 48. The word it in line 8 referred to _______ A. an elephant B. a tiger C. tiger pelts D. elephant ivory 49. The Chinese use parts of the tiger as_______ A. carving B. jewelry C. decoration D. medicine
50. According to Professor Dillon, _______ A. there is only one strategy to solve the problem B. it is education that can help to solve the problem C. we need both education and law enforcement to solve the problem D. only law enforcement can help to solve the problem
UNIT 11 Choose the letter A, B, C, D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1. The musicians _______ yesterday have played together for many years. A. to who we listened B. who we listened to C. to that we listened D. to whom we listened Question 2. Many scientists have claimed that _______ like music are often good at Maths. A. children B. children who C. children whom D. whose children Question 3. The student _______ had an impressive record. A. the prize was awarded B. that the prize was awarded C. to whom the prize was awarded D. who the prize was awarded Question 4. Scientists will find ways _______ our supplies of coal, oil, and gas. A. to increase B. increasing C. that increasing D. increased Question 5. I think it was your Dad _______. A. phoned B. to phone C. that phoned D. which phoned Question 6. Airplanes _______ in the twentieth century is one of the sources of pollution. A. which invented B. to invent C. invented D. that is invented Question 7. She has two grown children, both of _______ live abroad. A. who B. whom C. that D. whose Question 8. Could you please provide us _______some more modern equipment? A. for B. by C. in D. with Question 9. We do not have plenty _______ energy as we think. A. of B. on C. over D. with Question 10. I pulled off the sheets _______the furniture. A. to cover B. covered C. that covering D. covering Question 11. The nuclear power plant _______ last year will come to operate tomorrow. A. completing B. to complete C. completed D. which completed Question 12. Lady Astor was the first woman _______her seat in Parliament. A. take B. to take C. taking D. who takes Question 13. Do you remember the time _______we first visited London? A. which B. when C. that D. on that Question 14. The solar energy can change _______electricity. A. to B. for C. with D. into Question 15. Do you know the reason_______ she quit her job? A. that B. which C. when D. why Question 16. The park _______I used to jog in has been demolished. A. which B. where C. in which D. in where Question 17. Water is one of the precious resources _______for our life. A. we depend on which B. which we depend C. on which we depend D. on that we depend Question 18. The areas _______are destroyed suffer a lot from soil erosion. A. which trees B. whose trees C. that trees D. trees which Question 19. I never forget the time _______I first visit Cat Tien National Park. A. when B. why C. where D. on that Question 20. I have to leave for London tomorrow, _______ means I cannot go to the party with you. A. that B. which C. when D. why Question 21. More and more rare animals are _______danger of extinction. A. for B. on C. at D. in Question 22. Some countries _______try to reduce extinction depend on the world organization for support. A. which B. in which C. where D. whose Question 23. Do you think that we are using up the resources _______for our survival? A. are necessary B. that are necessary C. which necessary D. that necessary Question 24. Rain forests are places_______ people harvest wood, delicious fruits, and powerful medicine. A. in which B. in that C. in where D. which Question 25. I wonder about _____ human beings are destroying the environment so seriously. A. the reason that B. that reason C. the reason in which D. the reason for which Question 26. The authority gathered those villagers_____ they explained the importance of forests. A. who B. whom C. to whom D. to that Question 27. The energy _______ by the windmill drives all the drainage pumps. A. that is producing B. which produces C. producing D. produced Questions 28. They are making an artificial lake _______ water for the area. A. provided B. that provided C. to provide D. which is provide Question 29. She is the only one in the discussion _______ to using nuclear power. A. objects B. objected C. to object D. whom objects Question 30. The old man _______ a black suit is a famous energy researcher. A. to wear B. wearing C. whom is wearing D. is wearing Question 31. John was the last applicant _______ for a position in that energy station. A. to interview B.which is interviewed C. interviewing D. to be interviewed Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 32. A. books B. bats C. cups D. dogs Question 33. A. boxes B. classes C. notes D. buzzes Question 34. A. hopes B. laughs C. works D. comes Question 35. A. helps B. photographs C. costs D. plays Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the blanks from 36 to 45. There is now increasing concern about the world’s (36) _____, particularly about those involving fossil (37) ______. In less than a hundred years we shall probably (38) _____ all the present (39) ____ of oil and gas. The world’s coal (40) ____ should last longer but, once used, these cannot be (41) _____. It is important, therefore, that we should develop such alternative sources of energy as solar energy and nuclear energy as well as water and wind (42) _____ (classed as (43) _____ energy). Until these energy (44) ______ are widely used, it is important for developed countries to reduce energy (45) ______ as much as possible. 36. A. possessions B. resources C. goods D. materials 37. A. fuels B. powers C. forms D. energy 38. A. end B. complete C. total D. exhaust 39. A. findings B. productions C. amounts D. sources 40. A. reserves B. stores C. mines D. contents 41. A. updated B. repeated C. renewed D. produced 42. A. force B. repeated C. renewed D. produced 43. A. repeatable B. continual C. renewable D. continuous 44. A. goods B. supplies C. provisions D. materials 45. A. exhaustion B. destruction C. waste D. consumption Read the passage and choose the correct answers: Scientists often divide resources into two groups: renewable and non– renewable. When a resource is used, it takes some times to replace it. If the resource can be replaced quickly and easily, it is called renewable. If it cannot be replaced quickly and easily, it is non-renewable. All fossil fuels are non-renewable resources. Solar energy, air, and water are usually called renewable because there is an unlimited supply. However, this definition may change if people are not careful with these resources. The amount of solar energy that reaches the earth depends on the atmosphere. If the atmosphere is polluted, the solar energy that reaches the earth may be dangerous. If humans continue to pollute the air, it will not contain the correct amounts of these gases. Many resources are limited and non- renewable, and many are in danger of pollution. As a consequence, resources must be conserved and the environment protected. Conservation must become an important part of everyone’s life.
46. How many kinds of resources are mentioned in the passage? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 47. Non-renewable resources are those which _______ A. are unlimited B. can be replaced quickly and easily C. take millions of the years to replace D. are used every day such as solar energy and water 48. What will happen if the atmosphere is polluted? A. The air won’t contain the correct amounts of natural gases B. Life won’t continue as it does C. Renewable resources will soon become non- renewable D. All are correct 49. The word conservation in the passage is opposite to A. prevention B. pollution C. protection D. preservation 50. Why do we have to conserve resources? A. Because many resources are limited and non-renewable B. Because conservation plays an important part in everyone’s life C. To keep the air from being polluted D. To make natural resources renewable UNIT 12 I. Choose the word which is stressed differently from the rest. 1. A. knowledge B. friendship C. athlete D. compete 2. A. appreciate B. enthusiasm C. participant D. solidarity 3. A. aquatic B. basketball C. official D. together 4. A. occasion B. together C. develop D. volleyball 5. A. athletic B. history C. quality D. bodybuilding II. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. 6. A. Asian B. basketball C. tennis D. solidarity 7. A. shooting B. squash C. sport D. sure 8. A. rugby B. nearby C. cycling D. apply 9. A. hoped B. attracted C. added D. participated 10. A. athletics B. participants C. efforts D. skills III. Correction 11. By the time Joan arrived, all of the food had eaten. A B C D 12. The weather this year is much hotter than 2005. A B C D 13. If he would be taller, he would be a good basketball player. A B C D 14. The final exam was the more difficult than the mid-semester exam. A B C D 15. The customs in his country are more traditional than that in the United States. A B C D IV. Vocabulary and grammar 16. Do you know when the 2006 Asian Games took place? A. happened B. deepened C. added D. struggled 17. The Asian Games have advanced in all aspects since the first Games was help in 1951. A. developed B. competed C. taken place D. decreased 18. Only 489 athletes took part in the 1st Asian Games. A. participated in B. got rid of C. gave up D. added to 19. Korea was chosen to be of the 2002 Asian Games. A. athlete B. host C. participant D. guest 20. The Olympic Games is one of the biggest sporting all over the world. A. problems B. athletes C. cultures D. events 21. After the accident he lost his for the sport. A. enthusiasm B. enthusiast C. enthusiastic D. enthusiastically 22. We are quite of the success of our country at the next Asian Games. A. hope B. hopeful C. hopefully D. hopefulness 23. I do weight training every day to improve the of muscles. A. strong B. strength C. strongly D. strengthen 24. We presented the athletes some flowers as a token of our for all their efforts to achieve. A. appreciate B. appreciation C. appreciated D. appreciative 25. After the opening ceremony, the athletes got ready to start the . A. compete B. competitor C. competition D. competitive 26. is considered to be the most popular, is also my favorite. A. Football which B. Football, that C. Football, which D. Football
27. The football season is the time thousands of football fans crowd into the stadium to watch their favorite teams. A. where B. which C. at that D. when 28. Athletes do their best to win medals to winners as awards. A. which give B. are give C. to give D. given 29. Each country sends its best athletes participation expresses the friendship and solidarity. A. who B. which C. that D. whose 30. The man a black suit is a football referee. A. to wear B. wearing C. who wear D. wears. 31. Fencing was first introduced at the 13th Asian Games, in Bangkok. Thailand in 1998. A. to be held B. holding C. when was held D. which was held 32. He took out a photo of Pélé, he adored. A. whose B. whom C. that D. which 33. The death of his son was an experience from he never fully recovered. A. when B. why C. that D. which 34. They are talking about they are looking at. A. David Beckham is picture B. David Beckham’s picture C. David Beckham, which picture D. David Beckham, whose picture 35. This is a picture in the newspaper of a high jumper leg was seriously hurt. A. who B. whom C. whose D. that
VII. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. Up to now, Thailand (1) the host country of the Asian Games four times. In 1966, Thailand held the Games for the first time. It was the 5th Games with 18 countries (2) _____ . In 1970, South Korea dropped its plan to host the games (3) security threats from North Korea, and the (4) host Thailand administered the Games in Bangkok using the funds of South Korea. In 1978, Pakistan dropped its plan to host the Games due to conflicts with Bangladesh and Indian. Thailand (5) to help and the Games were held in Bangkok. The 13th Asian Games was held in Bangkok, Thailand from 6 to 20 December 1998. 36. A. is B. will be C. was D. has been 37. A. to compete B. competing C. competed D. compete 38. A. as B. due to C. because D. despite 39. A. previous B. advanced C. old D. before 40. A. suggested B. advised C. offered D. made
V. Read the passage carefully and choose the correct answer. The Asian Games owes its origins to small Asian multi-sport competitions. The Far Eastern Championship Games were created to show unity and cooperation among three nations: Japan, the Philippines and China. The first games were held in Manila, the Philippines in 1931. Other Asian nations participated after it was organized. After World War II, a number of Asian countries became independent. Many of the new independent Asian countries wanted to use a new type of competition where Asian dominance should not be shown by violence and should be strengthened by mutual understanding. In August 1948, during the 14th Olympic Games in London, Indian representative Guru Dutt Sondhi proposed to sports leaders of the Asian teams the idea of having discussions about holding the Asian Games. They agreed to form the Asian Athletic Federation. A preparatory committee was set up to draft the charter for the Asian amateur athletic federation. In February, 1949, the Asian athletic federation was formed and used the name Asian Games Federation. It was decided to hold the first Asian Games in 1951 in New Delhi the capital of India. They added that the Asian Games would be regularly held once every four years. 41. The text is about . A. the origin of the Asian Games B. the Far Eastern Championship Games C. the Games in Manila D. the relationship of Japan, the Philippines, and China 42. The Far Eastern Championship Games . A. were held in Manila after World War II B. were held in Japan C. were attended by all countries in Asia D. had the participation of only three nations
43. The 14th Olympic Games took place . A. in 1913 B. in august 1948 C. before the World War II D. in February 1949 44. The Asian Games . A. were first held in China B. were first held in Indian C. were suggested establishing by a Londoner. D. were held in same year of the 14th Olympic Games 45. The Asian Games were first held in . A. 1931 B. 1941 C. 1948 D. 1951 VI. Writing 46. The best place in which we can practise English is the staff-room. A. The best place is the staff-room for practising English. B. The best place is the staff-room to practise English. C. The best place for practising English us is the staff-room. D. The best place for us to practise English is the staff-room. 47. There are a lot of people. The people like to do things together. A. There are a lot of people whom like to do things together. B. There are a lot of people who like to do things together. C. There are a lot of people who like do things together. D. There are a lot of people like to do things together. 48. Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house. A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house. B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house. C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house. D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house. 49. That old house ___________________. A. at the end of the road has been sold. B. has been sold at the end of the road. C. at the end of the road has sold. D. they have sold at the end of the road. 50. I will wait until __________________. A. She will come tomorrow. B. she comes tomorrow. C. she is coming tomorrow. D. she is going to come tomorrow. UNIT 13
I/ Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions: 1. A. finished B. marched C. stopped D. robbed 2. A. attracted B. collected C. decided D. arrived 3. A. places B. ages C. lives D. pages 4. A. thanks B. shows C. suggests D. stops 5. A. letters B. books C. pets D. stamps II/Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. 6. There are number of things I like to do in my free time. A. leisure B. precious C. busy D. idle 7. My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. unimpaired B. skilled C. ill-educated D. unqualified 8. Now I can play a few simple tunes. A. compound B. plain C. easy D. complicated 9. ‘How do you do. I’m Bill Thomson. ‘_____________’ A. Very well. Thank you. B. I’m fifteen years old. C. I’m fine. D. How do you do. 10. I have a modest little glass fish tank where I keep a variety of small fish. A. limited B. excessive C. conceited D. moderate 11. ‘Thank you very much for the lovely flowers.’ ‘___________.’ A. You’re welcome. B. You like flowers, don’t you? C. Yeah, the flowers are nice. D. It was an excellent choice. 12. The singer was ________________ on the piano by her sister. A. played B. performed C. accompanied D. helped 13. The most important thing is to keep yourself occupied. A. busy B. relaxed C. comfortable D. free 14.___________ who was elected the first woman mayor of Chicago in 1979. A. It was Jane Byrne B. Jane Byrne C. That Jane Byrne D. When Jane Byrne 15. ‘Would you like a drink ?’ ‘_______________’ A. Yes, I want to. B. Yes, please. C. Thank you. I don’t want. D. No, I won’t. 16.____________ that the capital of South Carolina was moved from Charleston to Columbia A. In 1790 was B. There was in 1790 C. In 1790 D. It was in 1790 17. ‘Nice to meet you.’ ‘___________’ A. This is Peter White. B. Nice to meet you, too. C. I’m fine, thanks. D. It was nice to you to say so. 18. The man _______ on the chair behind me kept talking during the film, ___________really annoyed me. A. having sat/ that B. sitting/ which C. to sit/ what D. to be sitting/ who 19. ‘Thank you very much.’ ‘___________’ A. Yes, of course. B. I like it a lot. C. You’re alright. D. You’re welcome. 20. He advised me to practise playing the guitar regularly. A. frequently B. commonly C. freely D. completely 21. Neil Armstrong was the first person ___________ foot on the moon. A. set B. setting C. to set D. who was set 22. In the novel by Peter, ________ the film is based, the main character is a teenager. A. on that B. who C. on which D. which 23. Who was the first person _____________ the South Pole? A. reached B. to reach C. who reaches D. had reached 24. It is in Quebec___________ French is used as an official language . A. which B. where C. in where D. that 25. Mrs White, ______ taught me English 5 years ago, is a good teacher. A. who B. that C. whom D. whose. 26. ___________that the capital of South Carolina was moved from Charleston to Columbia. A. In 1790 was B. There was in 1790 C. In 1790 D. It was in 1790 27. It was Mr. Harding ___________ the bill to yesterday. A. who sent my secretary B. to whom my secretary sent C. that my secretary sent D. my secretary sent 28. ___________ Ruth St. Dennis turned to Asian dances to find inspiration for her choreography. A. It was the dancer that B. The dancer C. That the dancer D. The dancer was 29___________ I bought the golden fish. A. It was from this shop that B. I was from this shop where C. It was this shop which D. It was this shop that 30. It was Tom ___________ to help us. A. comes B. who comes C. to come D. that came
III/ Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35 Stamp collecting is the collecting of postage stamps and related objects, such as envelopes or packages with stamps on them. It is one of the world’s most popular hobbies, with estimates of the number of collectors ranging up to 20 million in the United States alone. Many casual collectors enjoy accumulating stamps without worrying about the tiny details, but the creation of a large or comprehensive collection generally requires some philatelic knowledge. This is especially important for those who intend to spend large amounts for stamps. Stamp collectors are an important source of revenue for some small countries that create limited runs of elaborate stamps designed mainly to be bought by stamp collectors. The stamps produced by these countries far exceed the postal needs of the countries. Some collectors, observing the generally rising prices of rare stamps, have taken to Philatelic Investment. Rare stamps are among the most portable of tangible investments, and are easy to store. They offer an attractive alternative to art, other collectible investments, and precious metals. The estimated number of stamp collectors in the United States is _________
A. 30 million B. 20 million C. 10 million D. 15 million 32. Philatelic knowledge is especially important for _________ A. many casual collectors enjoy B. some small countries C. those who intend to spend large amounts for stamps D. the postal needs of the countries 33. Why have some collectors taken to Philatelic investment? – Because they ________ A. have observed the generally rising prices of stamps. B. have observed the generally rising prices of rare stamps. C. have observed the generally low prices of stamps. D. haven’t observed the generally rising prices of stamps. 34. The word they in paragraph 4 refers to __________ A. Stamp collectors B. Small countries C. Rare stamps D. The prices of rare stamps 35. Which of the following is NOT true about rare stamps? - ___________ A. They are among the most portable of tangible investments. B. It’s easy for us to store rare stamps. C. They are an important source of revenue. D. They offer an attractive alternative to art.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 40 Hobbies are activities in which one participates strictly for ____36__. They help one to maintain a mental and emotional balance. A hobby can be almost anything. Music is most popular. For example, many people all over the world play piano simply for relaxing and _____37 __ in their free hours, and they do not play professionally.Sports provide other ______38 _____ hobbies. Bicycling, running, tennis, ping-pong, and countless other sports are enjoyed by millions of people ____39__ their leisure time. Some people collect things as a hobby. Stamps, coins, and fine art are all popular collections, and valuable, too. There are still hundreds of others, not necessarily valuable but still interesting, such as doll collections, bottle collections, seashell collections, butterfly collections, and so on. As you can see, hobbies can be relaxing, challenging, interesting, enjoyable or ____40 _______, so everyone should have one or two hobbies. 36. A. amusement B. working C. researching D. investigating 37. A. funny B. fun C. rest D. resting 38. A. liking B. likely C. favorite D. loving 39. A. for B. during C. of D. on 40. A. education B. non-education C. educational D. educationally
IV/ Mark the letter A, B, C or D to show the underlined part that needs correction. 41. There’s the woman who she told me about the handbag. A B C D 42. The man that you are looking for living next door. A B C D 43. The man for who the police are looking robbed the bank yesterday. A B C D 44 The actor about that I told you is coming here tomorrow. A B C D 45. It was many students some of who were playing in the schoolyard. A B C D
V/Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 46. Hung bought Lan a golden ring for her birthday. A. It was a golden ring that was bought to Lan for her birthday by Hung. B. It was a golden ring that was bought Lan for her birthday by Hung. C. It was a golden ring that was bought for Lan her birthday. D. It was a golden ring that Hung bought Lan for her birthday. 47. The girl gave the boy a special gift on Christmas. A. It was the boy who the girl gave him a special gift on Christmas. B. It was the boy who was gave a special gift on Christmas by the girl. C. It was the boy who was given a special gift on Christmas by the girl. D. It was a special gift that was given the boy in Christmas by the girl. 48. We have done a lot of exercises on Relative Clauses. A. It was a lot of exercises that we have done on Relative Clauses. B. It is a lot of exercises that are have done on Relative Clauses by us. C. It is a lot of exercises that has been done on Relative Clauses by us. D. It is a lot of exercises that have been done on Relative Clauses by us. 49. Columbus sailed to America in 1492. A. That was in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America B. In 1492 that Columbus sailed to America C. It was in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America D. It is in 1492 that Columbus sailed to America 50. The book is very expensive. My father is interested in it. A. The book in which my father is interested is very expensive. B. The book which in my father is interested is very expensive C. The book which my father is interested is very expensive D. The book in that my father is interested is very expensive
UNIT 15
I/ VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR: Circle the best answer among A, B, C or D. 1. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. sports B. plays C. households D. happens 2. Choose the word which has the stressed part pronounced differently from the others. A. undertake B. accompany C. appreciate D. engrave 3. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. At the Asian Games, friendship and ______ are built and deepened. A. solidarity B. championship C. competition D. contestant 4. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. He never drinks wine, ______? A. does he B. doesn’t he C. hasn’t he D. won’t he 5. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one. She invited us to her birthday party last week. A. It is we that were invited to her birthday party last week B. It was us that was invited to her birthday party last week C. It were we that were invited to her birthday party last week D. It was us that were invited to her birthday party last week 6. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. screw B. screen C. scream D. creak 7. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. The old man ___________a black suit is a famous energy researcher. A. wearing B. who wearing C. to wear D. is wearing 8. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. Do-it-yourself home improvements or gardening is a form of ______in Britain. A. recreation B. entertaining C. working D. sport 9. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. ___________ has been teaching English to us at Quang Trung High School A. It is Mr. Lanh B. It is Mr. Lanh that C. He is Mr. Lanh who D. It was Mr. Lanh whom 10. Choose the word which has the stressed part pronounced differently from the others. A. solidarity B. variety C. pursuit D. decision 11. Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. A. jumped B. stopped C. managed D. marched 12. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. The 27-year old Soviet cosmonaut, Yuri Gagarin, became the first person to eat and drink in ______. A. weigh B. weightless C. weightlessness D. weight 13. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. His brother’s hobbies are going swimming and ______toy cars. A. electing B. collecting C. choosing D. selecting 14. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. Uncle Ho was the president___________ A. we adore him B. whom we adore him C. whom adores us D. we adore 15. Choose the underlined part that needs correcting. He was the first man ___________the burning building. A. leaving B. to leave C. who leaves D. who leaving 16. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. ______ my mother ______ my father went to the party . They all stayed at home. A. Either -or B. both-and C. Neither -nor D. Not only/ but also 17. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. Somebody took the letters to the post, ___________..? A. didn’t they B. did they C. don’t they D. didn’t she 18. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. Many people were thought ___________in that earthquake. A. that they were killed B. to kill C. that they killed D. to have been killed 19. Choose the best answer to complete the sentence. The speech ______ last night was informative. A. we listened to it. B. which we listened to it C. to that we listened D. to which we listened 20. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one. She is not intelligent and she is not beautiful. A. She is neither intelligent nor beautiful. B. She is not both intelligent either beautiful. C. She neither is intelligent nor beautiful. D. She is not intelligent nor beautiful. 21. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. A. endangered B. attracted C. opened D. destroyed 22. ______ - He has lived in London for 2 years. A. Where does John come from? B. Who is John living with? C. How long has John lived in London? D. What does John do in the USA? 23. My brother used to play football ______ he does now. A. better than B. best than C. well than D. good than 24. Florida, ______ attracts many tourists every year, is known as the Sunshine State. A. who B. whom C. that D. which 25. He works at Heathrow Airport, that is one of the big airports in the world. A B C D 26. What ______ if you had been sent to England to study last year? A. did you do B. would you do C. would you have done D. had you done 27. ______ it was raining heavily, he went out without a raincoat. A. Because of B. In spite of C. Because D. Although 28. The TV program I watched last night was so ______ that I turned off it. A. bored B. bore C. boring D. to bore 29. My classmate told me to watch movies in English______learn spoken English better. A. so as B. so that C. in order that D. in order to 30. There will be ______ good film at ______ cinema next week. A. a-a B. a-the C. the-a D. the- the 31. “Related to an area near a tropical area” means: A. special B. contaminated C. tropical D. sub-tropical 32. The city of London was founded by the Romans in the year 43 AD. A. established B. located C. developed D. characterized 33. Why have you bought so much food? I ______ for ten people. A. will cook B. am going to cook C. cooked D. have cooked 34. The South Vietnam ______ on April 30, 1975. A. was completely liberated B. was liberated completely C. is completely liberated D. completely liberated 35. Do you take part ______ the school football team? - No, I can’t play football well. A. on B. in C. at D. for 36. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. A. music B. noisy C. western D. busy 37. Choose the word whose main stress is places differently from that of the others A. historic B. history C. moderate D. hospitable 38. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently A. months B. pulls C. goods D. warns 39. Jack got into trouble when he refused _________ his briefcase for the customs officer. A. opening B. being opened C. to open D. to be opened 40. By the time you got her letter, she __________ in Paris. A. arrives B. arrived C. was arriving D. had arrived II/ READING: 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answers by circling A, B, C or D. Long ago a lot of people thought the moon was a god. Other people thought it was just a light in the sky. And others thought it was a big ball of cheese. Then telescopes were made. And men saw that the moon was really another world. They wondered what it was like. They dreamed of going there. On July 20, 1969, that dream came true. Two American men landed on the moon. Their names were Neil Armstrong and Edwin Aldrin. The first thing the men found was that the moon is covered with dust. The dust is so thick that the men left footprints where they walked. Those were the first marks a living thing had ever made on the moon. And they could stay there for years and years. There is no wind or rain to wipe them off. The two men walked on the moon for hours. They picked up rocks to bring back to earth for study. They dug up dirt to bring back. They set up machines to find out things people wanted to know. Then they climbed back into their moon landing craft. Next day the landing craft roared as the two men took off from the moon. They joined Michael Collins in the spaceship that waited for them above the moon. Then they were off on their long trip back to earth. Behind them they left the plains and tall mountains of the moon. They left the machines they had set up. And they left footprints that may last forever. 41. This story tells ______________________ A. about the first men to walk on the moon. B. what the men brought back from their trip to the moon. C. how men found the footprints on the moon. D. who had left footprints on the moon before the two men landed there. 42. A telescope ______________________. A. makes faraway things seem closer. B. turns the moon into another world C. makes many of men’s dreams come true D. makes balls of light seem brighter 43. The men brought rocks and dirt from the moon because ___________ A. they wanted something to show they were there. B. they wanted to keep them as souvenirs C. people wanted to use them to learn about the moon. D. they might sell them to scientists. 44. The Americans’ machines will most likely stay on the moon until ___________ A. someone takes them away. B. a storm covers them with dust C. rain and wind destroy them. D. they become rusty and break to pieces. 45. The next people who go to the moon most likely could ___________ A. find the places where Armstrong and Aldrin walked B. leave the first set of footprints on the moon. C. find that the machines have disappeared. D. find that dust has wiped off the two men’s footprints.
Choose the best option among A, B, C or D to complete the passage Homes are often (46) __________ with plants and flowers at this time. Peach blossom is (47) __________ at Tet in the North while apricot blossom is traditional in the South. (48) _________ kumquat tree with its ripe deep orange fruits is popular throughout the country. One of Tet’s most (49) __________ foods is banh chung, which is made (50) _________ sticky rice, green beans fatty pork. Mut, which is candied fruit such as sugared apples, plums or tomatoes, is also popular. 46. A. decorate B. decorated C. decorating D. decorates 47. A. tradition B. traditions C. traditional D. traditionally 48. A. The B. A C. An D. no article 49. A. famous B. interested C. fascinating D. nicest 50. A. from B. of C. in D. with
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ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP THI THỬ THPT QUỐC GIA LẦN 1 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 12 NĂM HỌC: 2017-2018 TEST 01 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. valentine B. imagine C. discipline D. determine Question 2. A. linked B. declared C. finished D. developed Question 3. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing Question 4. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 5. A. compliment B. convenient C. tsunami D. tradition Question 6. A. wildlife B. injure C. degree D. passage Question 7 A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction Question 8. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 9. The year-end party was out of this world. We had never tasted such delicious food. A. enormous B. terrific C. strange D. awful Question 10. In some Western cultures, people who avoid eye contact in a conversation are regarded as untrustworth. A. embarrassed B. unreasonable C. dependable D. unreliable Question 11. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state. A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized Question 12. The prince was next in the order of succession. A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 13. The dog is starving. It hasn’t got anything to eat for nearly a week. A. quite happy B. very hungry C. rather full D. extremely thirsty Question 14. Safety regulations have made it obligatory for all employees to wear protective clothing. A. popular B. optional C. common D. compulsory Question 15. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court. A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money Question 16. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning . A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 17 . The woman ______ gave me the book is my aunt. A. where B. when C. who D. which Question 18. After nine months without any rain, the country was facing one of the worst......in the last fifty years. A. draughts B. floods C. eruptions D. droughts Question 19. Jack’s father bought him a(n) ______ bike as a birthday gift. A. brown Vietnamese expensive B. expensive Vietnamese brown C. Vietnamese expensive brown D. expensive brown Vietnamese Question 20. The harder they study, ______. A. the better results they get B. their results get better C. the better do their results get D. the best results they gets Question 21. We ______ full use of the fine weather and had a day out. A. took B. created C. did D. made Question 22. My neighbor, Nga, ______ to America last month. A. was moving B. moves C. moved D. has moved Question 23. In this game, you are not allowed to speak; You have to use non-verbal______. A. communicated B. communication C. communicate D. communicative Question 24. Telephone sometimes causes ________ between members of the family. A. arguments B. differences C. quarrel D. misunderstand Question 25. I have great _______for the young teachers who devote their life to teaching children in remote and mountainous area. .A. intention B. admiration C. consideration D. sympathy Question 26. If I were you, I…………………….ask the doctor for advice. A. can B. will C. must D. would Question 27. Have you read __________ novel we bought in the supermarket last Saturday? A. a B. the C. an D. no article Question 28. When you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Do’t put it_______ and then feel regretful. - down B. on C. off D. aside
Question 29. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________. A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub Question 30. His health would be improved________. A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn"t smoke any more. Question 31. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert. A. into B. away C. out D. from Question 32. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana. A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost Question 33. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the ____ of extinction. A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge Question 34. ________ she could not say anything. A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that Question 35. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation. A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate Question 36. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 37. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again. A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn"t have Question 38.________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station. A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked Question 39. It"s no good________ to him; he never answers letters. A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing Question 40. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people________ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left. A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 41. Ken and Laura are saying goodbye to each other after going to LOTTE Center. And they are going to have a date with each other later. - Laura: “Well, it’s getting late. Maybe we could get together sometime.” - Ken: “ ______________” A. Nice to see back you. B. Take it easy. C. Sounds good. I’ll give you a call. D. Yes, I’ve enjoyed it. Question 42. Two friends, John and Laura are talking about the public transportation John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” Laura: “_______ ”. A. Yes, it"s an absurd idea B. There"s no doubt about it C. Of course not. You bet D. Well, that"s very surprising Question 43. Would you mind closing the window please? A. Yes of course. Are you cold? | B. No, not at all. I will close it now. | C. Yes I do. You can close it. | D. Yes of course you can do it. |
Question 44. Do you have the time please? A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid. C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 45. The room had been painted in dark colors. It needed some bright lights. A.Having been painted in dark colors, the room needed some bright lights. B.Although the room needed some bright lights, it had been painted in dark colors. C.Because the room needed some bright lights, it had been painted in dark colors. D.Having painted in dark colors, the room needed some bright lights. Question 46. Sports help maintain lower body weight. Sports also promote self confidence. A. Sports help maintain lower body weight, but they promote self confidence. B. Sports help maintain lower body weight, and they promote self confidence. C. Sports help maintain lower body weight, for they promote self confidence. D. Sports help maintain lower body weight, or they promote self confidence. Question 47. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead. A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set. B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework. C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework. D. Henry did his homework while watching TV. Question 48. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office. A. She didn"t want to make him angry, so she left. B. He wouldn"t have been so angry if she hadn"t been there. C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office. D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 49. I couldn’t have made it without your help. A. I couldn’t have made it if you helped me. B. I couldn’t have made it if you had helped me. C. I couldn’t have made it if you hadn’t helped me. D. I couldn’t have made it if you didn’t help me. Question 50. The last time I played football was in 1991 A. I haven’t played football in 1991 B. I haven’t played football since 1991 C. I didn’t play football in 1991 D. I last played football since 1991 Question 51. "Don"t forget to turn off the light before leaving." A. He asked me to leave and turn off the light. B. He reminded me to turn off the light before leaving. C. He promised to turn off the light before leaving. D. He warned me about turning off the light before leaving. Question 52. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race. A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race. B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race. C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race. D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race. Question 53. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold. A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic. B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic. C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic. D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic. Question 54. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition. A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition. B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary. C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does. D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 55. Neither his parents nor his teacher were satisfied with his result when he was at high school. A B C D Question 56. I always make the children to pick up their toys. A B C D Question 57. Gray whales migrate 5,000 miles from Arctic waters to bays in California A B where they give birth for their calves. C D Question 58. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and A B C indication its correct use. D Question 59. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to attend the concert. A B C D Question 60. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they areworried. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks PEER PRESSURE Sociologists have been carrying out research into the social pressures of being a teenager. Many adolescents are unhappy at school because they find it difficult to (61)______ friends. This stress can bring on illness or result in poor grades. They may also worry about their appearance and often feel (62)______ enormous pressure to dress, talk and behave the same as (63)_____. This phenomenon is called peer pressure, and it is very common in today’s society. Advertising contributes a lot to the social pressures teenagers feel. Advertisers know how important it is to feel that you belong to a group when you are in your teens, so they try ti persuade teenagers that certain products will make them (64)______ with their classmates. Sadly, many teenagers act irresponsibly and even do dangerous things just to make others accept them. Peer pressure is often the reason for teenage smoking, drug (65)______ or dangerous driving. Teenagers need to learn to say “no” to social pressure and to find friends who they can talk things over with when they have a problem. Question 61: A.keep B.create C.remain D.make Question 62: A.in B.under C.over D.below Question 63: A.another B.the other C.others D.other Question 64: A.common B.popular C.open D.favorite Question 65: A.overdose B.abuse C.addicted D.overuse Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks English has without a (66) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most (67) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England"s neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia. The situation is so (68) ____ that any visitor to the Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (69) ____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (70) ____ that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations. Question 66. | A. | question | B. | doubt | C. | problem | D. | thought | Question 67. | A. | successfully | B. | victorious | C. | successful | D. | lucrative | Question 68. | A. | plain | B. | open | C. | blatant | D. | marked | Question 69. | A. | life | B. | energy | C. | pep | D. | enthusiasm | Question 70 | A. | feeling | B. | posture | C. | judgment | D. | view |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Young people have always liked having their own language. Each generation has its own slang words, and they change faster than most adults can keep up with. That’s the point of slang, according to experts who study language and communication, and according to the young people themselves. “You don’t want your parents or teachers understanding everything you say,” says one 15-year-old. “We need our own space, too.” But nowadays it’s not a matter of just a few words. There is a whole new language developing. It’s happening online, and it’s happening at lightning speed. “It” is the language of Instant Messaging, or IM, also used in text messaging. For young people, it’s a fun and creative way to converse. And the cool thing for them is, most adults can’t understand it. “Young people have always been secretive,” says one communication expert. “It used to be passing notes under the desk in class. It’s a way of keeping in touch and keeping adults in the dark.” There isn’t only one IM language, either. Young people in every country have developed their own lingo, mainly based on sounds. For example, the Spanish question word ¿que? Become K? in IM language. In French, A+ (a plus) isn’t a good grade, it’s the equivalent of L8R (later). In Japan, teenage girls have created an entire language called Gal Go. It is a combination of different types of Japanese characters, and even boys of their generation find it impossible to figure out. The good news is that the preoccupation with IM – and with secrecy – doesn’t last forever. By the time they enter college, most young people are using a simpler version of IM language, with just a few common abbreviations everyone knows. By that time, IM is just a practical way to keep in touch with friends and colleagues, not a way to keep secrets from the older generation. Question 71: According to the passage, each generation of young people ______. A: uses the same slang words their parents did B: has its own slang vocabulary C: wants the older generation to understand them D: uses less slang than the previous generation Question 72: The 15-year-old suggests that young people ______. A: want their own rooms B: don"t like talking to teachers C: need privacy D: don"t understand parents or teachers Question 73: According to the passage, what is true about IM language? A: It is developing quickly B: It is developing slowly C: It is being learned by adults D: It is easy to learn Question 74: It is stated in the passage that IM language ______. A: is the same all over the world B: is used more often by girls C: is simpler than Japanese D: differs depending on the country it"s used in Question 75: The word "lingo" in the passage would probably mean ______. A: language B: alphabet C: message D: IM device Question 76: The word "It" in the passage refers to ______. A: Gal Go B: A+ C: L8R D: K? Question 77: What usually happened by the time young people enter college? A: They forget how to use IM B: They use a less complicated form of IM language C: They use a more complicated form of IM language D: They lose interest in keeping in touch Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions A ghostly animal creeps silently through a Florida swamp. It’s a rare type of big cat known as a Florida panther, one of only 80 to 100 such panthers left in the world. Scientists must work to save these remaining panthers from extinction, but their secretive nature is making it difficult. They are attaching a special transmitter to each Florida panther so they can follow their movements, range, and habits. The technology these transmitters use is called satellite tracking. The scientists are dedicated professionals, but they are not pioneers. Their colleagues before them have attached tiny transmitters to many different kinds of wild animals, including birds, fish, and big cats. So the Florida scientists are using their methods. Firstly, they must trap and tranquillize the panther. Then, the transmitter is attached to a harness and strapped to the panther’s body. Each harness is custom designed and manually adjusted for panthers so it fits comfortably. Scientists don’t want the transmitter to interfere with the panther’s natural habits. The point of tracking them is to find out as much as they can about their natural habits. Once the tracking transmitter is in place, the information it records is sent to an orbiting satellite. The satellite can see the transmitter that is attached to the panther, even when it is out of sight of a biologist on the ground. The satellite collects information from the transmitter about the panther’s exact location. Once the information is received, it is transmitted back to Earth so it can be recorded by the scientists. Scientists can use the information in many different ways. They can follow the panthers on the ground and observe their behavior. Alternatively, they can use the information to determine the panthers’ ranges and to understand their social patterns. They can also track how environmental changes like weather conditions affect their movements and health. All this information can be used to provide ideal conditions for the endangered panthers. It can also be used to protect the panthers from danger. In the end, the panther silently slips away through the trees. Around its shoulders a transmitter is sending signals via satellite to a dedicated biologist. The biologist is using the information the transmitter provides to save the Florida panthers from extinction. With the help of satellite tracking these beautiful cats have a better chance of survival in the modern world. (Adapted from http://www.thereadingplanet.com) Question 78: What type of technology are scientists using to follow the panther? A: satellite tracking B: special transmitter C: trap and tranquilize D: tracking transmitter Question 70: According to the ready passage, what information does the satellite collect from the transmitter? A: information about the biologists on the ground B: information about the chance of panthers" survival C: information about the total number of panthers D: information about the panther"s exact location Question 80: Which sentence about the tracking transmitter is true according to the passage? A: Each transmitter is different because it is specially designed for a specific purpose. B: The transmitter is inserted invisibly inside the panther"s body C: Scientists can follow the panthers using the information from the transmitter. D: The information is not useful for learning about the panthers" habit or social patterns Question 81: Which sentence about the tracking transmitter is NOT true? A: Scientists use the information the transmitter provides to save the panthers. B: The Florida panther is the only animal to be attached with the transmitter C: The transmitter sends a signal to a satellite that can see the transmitter D: The transmitter is attached to a harness and strapped to the panther"s body Question 82: The word "tranquilize" in the passage mostly mean ______. A: put it in a cage B: capture it quietly C: handle it gently D: make it calm and quiet Question 83: The phrase "custom designed" in the passage probably means ______. A: designed by famous designers B: specially made for panthers C: created by hand D: functioned according to a custom Question 84: How does the writer explain the use of the information from the tracking transmitter in paragraph 4? A: by suggesting the best way to use the information B: by listing the different ways the information can be used C: by discussing the value of the information D: by comparing the positive and negative points about the information Question 85: What can be the best title of the reading passage? A: Keeping Track B: Information Transmitter C: Animal Tranquilizer D: Understanding Wildlife Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER? Do you think you"re smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points betterfor every decade that has passed.This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it. IQ tests and other similartests are designedto measure general intelligence ratherthan knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests? Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain developmentthan in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solvingthat intelligence tests require. Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Testtakers didn"t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set. According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do wellon one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be. Question 86. The Flynn effect is____________. A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences Question 87. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________. A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information Question 88. IQ tests evaluate____________. A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories Question 89. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea? A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test. D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set. Question 90. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________. A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves C. memorizing information D. improved test scores Question 91. Why does the author mention computer games? A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence. B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies. C. to encourage the reader to exercise. D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent. Question 92. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with? A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way. B. People today have fewer problems to solve. C. People today are taking easier tests. D. People today have more visual intelligence. ReadthefollowingpassageandmarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethe correctanswertoeachofthequestionsfrom43to50.Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives. Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job. Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers. Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrievesknowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences. There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills. Question 93. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of? A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom Question 94. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom? A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong Question 95. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ________. A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education Question 96. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage? A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life. B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older. C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school. D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions. Question 97. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______. A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning Question 98. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains Question 99. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage? A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors. B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used. C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge. D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors. Question 100. The passage mainly discusses ______. A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education ----------THE END--------- TEST 02 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation In each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
Question 2. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
Question 3. A. waited B. mended C. objected D. faced Question 4. A. bushes B. buses C. lorries D. charges Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5. A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment Question 6. A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology Question 7. A. summary B. different C. physical D. decision Question 8. A. attractiveness B. traditional C. generation D. American Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
Question 9. Who will replace you to monitor the class on the days you are on duty next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
Question 10. We, the young, should take actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned with sewage processing measures from now on.
A. indifferent to B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
Question 11.In times of war, the Red Cross is dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians, and prisoners of war. A. mounted B. excited C. devoted D. interested Question 12. If you do not understand the word "superstitious," look it up in the dictionary. A. find its meaning B. write it C. draw it D. note it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the two following questions.
Question 13. That is a will-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving cleverly B. behaving nice C. behaving improperly D. good behavior
Question 14. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Question 15: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. fluctuate B. stay unchanged C. restrain D. remain unstable Question 16: In some countries, the disease burden could be prevented through environmental improvements. A. something to suffer B. something sad C. something to entertain D. something enjoyable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 17. The longest mountain range the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most of it lies under the ocean.
A. mountain range B. not hardly C. most of D. under
Question 18. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of the criteria for success in the workplace.
A. to work B. thinking C. are D. for success Question 19. Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia was the first public school of its kind.
A. Establishing B. for students C. was D. of its kind Question 20: The better you are at English, the more chance you have to get a job A B C D Question 21. He is the second person be killed in that way A B C D Question 22.I’m very glad that you’ve done lots of progress this semester. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 23. We all believe that a happy marriage should be _______ mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to
Question 24. The teachers are, at the moment, trying their best _______ all the necessary that their students may need for their critical examination while, sadly, some do not seem to appreciate that.
A. to prepare B. prepared C. preparing D. prepare
Question 25. A lot of skills and knowledge fields _______ .
A. be prepared and practiced B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. prepared and practiced B. have to be being prepared and practiced
Question 26. We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t ……………
A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on
Question 27. Our professor ________ said we should turn in the assignment on Friday.
A. specific B. specifically C. specifying D. specifyingly
Question 28. They were 30 minutes later because their car ………………. down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke Question 29. Scientists warn that many of the world’s great cities are ________ flooding.
A. being B. at risk C. in danger of D. endangered
Question 30. The replacement of shops Such as the groceries’ and chemist’s by cafes ……… the housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. leave B. have left C. has left D. to have left
Question 31. I studied English for four years in high school. …………. had trouble talking with people when I was traveling in the US.
A. Therefore, l B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
Question 32. My uncle was _____ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but steady recovery
A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically
Question 33. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he ________ harder.
A. will study B. studies C. would study D. study
Question 34. ………….. the book, please return it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will you he finding C. Will you find D. Will you have found
Question 35: ______ he is not rich, he wants to travel around the world. A. In spite of B. Although C. Despite D.Because
Question 36: Donald Trump has suggested he could grant legal status to millions of undocumented immigrants who have not ______ serious crimes in what would be a major policy shift. A. committed | B. took | C. served | D. done |
Question 37: All students should be ______ and literate when they leave school. A. numeric B. numeral C. numerous D. numerate Question 38. Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ______ until it was announced publicly. A. cap B. tongue C. hat D. umbrella Question 39.When a women works outside the home and makes money herself, she is ________ independent from her husband. A. financially B. politically C. philosophically D. variously Question 40: A woman"s role in society was defined by the Feminists on whether they were contributors ________ society or not. A. upon B. to C. off D. away Question 41.The organization was ___________ in 1950 in the USA. A. come around B. set up C. made out D. put on Question 42. Do you need to give your speech another_________ or do you already know it by heart? A. break-down B. check-up C. run-through D. mix-up Question 43.Larry drove all night to get here for his sister"s wedding. He ___ exhausted by the time he arrived. A. must have been B. could be C. ought to be D. will have been Question 44.He had spent ____ time writing an essay on his childhood. A. a few B. a large number of C. a great deal of D. many Question 45.When___________at this store, the buyers get a guarantee on all items A. purchased B. purchase C. purchasing D. having purchased Question 46._________ for the fact that he was working abroad, he would willingly have helped with the project. A. If it were B. If it hadn’t been C. were it to be D. Hadn’t it been Mark the letter A, B, C. or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following exchanges. Question 47. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?’ - Sarah: “________ “
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You are very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite
Question 48. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” - ________”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. I don’t know what time that person comes.
C. I’d love to conic. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?
Question 49.John: “I didn’t pass my driving test.” – Anna: “.............!” A. Better luck next time B. It’s none of my business C. Congratulations D. That was nice of you. Question 50. Tom: “Wasn"t it Mozart who composed Swan Lake?” Jane: “__________.” A. Yes, he wasn"t B. It"s out of question C. I haven"t a clue D. It"s not my favourite Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following sentences.
Question 51. You could not have made a very good impression on them.
A. You seem to have impressed them very unfavourably.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you. Question 52. Due to the heavy snow, all buses have been cancelled until further notice.
A. If it weren’t for the heavy snow you would notice how much further the bus had to go.
B. The buses would not have been cancelled if only it had not snowed so much.
C. Heavy snow has caused the buses to stop running, though there will be an announcement of when they will start up again.
D. If this snow keeps up, there will be an announcement to declare that the buses will no longer run. Question 53. It’s more than a couple of years since I last went there.
A. I have never stayed there for longer than two years.
B. It was only after two years that I went there again.
C. I haven’t been there since my visit over two years ago.
D. I had never been there until the year before last. Question 54. “Where are you spending your holidays?” Janet asked us. A. Janet asked us where we were spending our holidays. B. Janet asked us where were we spending our holidays. C. Janet asked us where you were spending your holidays. D. Janet asked us where we were spending your holidays Question 55. Be he rich or poor, she will marry him A.She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor B.She wants to marry him if he is rich C.She will marry him whether he is rich or poor D.She will marry him however poor he may be Question 56: Many people think Steve stole the money. A. The money is thought to be stolen by Steve. B. Steve is thought to have stolen the money. C. Many people think the money is stolen by Steve. D. It was not Steve who stole the money. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 57. The referee brought the football game to a halt. He blew his whistle.
A. The referee stopped playing football and blowing his whistle.
B. The referee stopped the football game before he blew his whistle.
C. Having stopped the football match, the referee blew his whistle.
D. The referee brought the football game to a halt by blowing his whistle.
Question 58. We planned to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee, however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon because of the fee.
B. We visited Eiffel Tower in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. Question 59: The children were attracted by the show. It was performed by the animals. A. The children attracted by the show which was performed by the animals. B. The children were attracted by the show to have been performed by the animals. C. The show performing by the animals attracted the children. D. The children were attracted by the show performed by the animals. Question 60.“We preserve natural resources. We can use them in the future.” means_____. A. We preserve natural resources so that we can use them in the future B. We preserve natural resources so as to we can use them in the future C. We preserve natural resources in order to we can use them in the future D. We preserve natural resources for fear that we can use them in the future Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or 0 on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks Speech is one of the most important (61) ________ of communicating. It consists of far more than just making noises. To talk and also to (62) ……….. by other people, we have to speak a language. that is, we have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea. Communication would be impossible it everyone made up their own language. Learning a language properly is very (63) _______. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, and only about 2,000 words are needed to speak it quite (64) ________. But the more idea you can express, the more precise you can be about their exact meaning. Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (65) ______ whether we are pleased or angry, for instance. Question 61. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests
Question 62. A. he understood B. be spoken C. be examined D. be talked
Question 63. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. important
Question 64. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent
Question 65. A. know B. show C. ask D. understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (66)_____________joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend may be someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (67) _________with. There are all sorts of things that can (68)____________about this special relationship. It may be the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have metsomeone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages.________(69), it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the ________(70)of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understands us better than anyone else. It"s the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets. Question 66.A. have B. share C. give D. spend Question 67.A. up B. through C. on D. in Question 68.A. provide B. bring C. cause D. result Question 69.A. Therefore B. In addition C.However D. Yet Question 70.A. majority B.major C. majorial D.majorially Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or 0 on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions COLORS AND EMOTIONS Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are lust as important tome as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related? Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need. The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning. I choose my clothes based on the color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are exposed to, which can help you to feel better. Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions. Question 71. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colorful clothes can change your mood B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
C. Colors can help you become healthy. D. Colors are one of the most exciting. Question 72. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. your friend’s feelings C. your appetite D. your mood Question 73. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced. B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced. D. The people who wear those colors, not you.
Question 74. According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. wearing the color black B. exposing yourself to bright colors
C. being open to your emotions D. ignoring your emotions
Question 75. The term “intimately” in paragraph I is closest in meaning to …..
A. clearly B. closely C. obviously D. simply
Question 76 . The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. emotions B. people C. colors D. none of the above Question 77. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. to show how color can affect energy levels in the body. B. Because they both affect how we feel
C. to prove the relationship between emotions and color. D. Because vibrations make you healthy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two- thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These eggs substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or bailing. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called “designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low- flat diets consisting of ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed results. It may be that is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may he more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level. Question 78. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary tat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes. Question 79. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. Increasing price B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens D. Concerns about cholesterol
Question 80. What is meant by the phrase mixed results?
A. The results are blended. B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive. D. The results are mingled together.
Question 81. Which of the following could best replace the word ‘somewhat’?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot Question 82. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol?
A. ¾ B. 2/3 C.1/2 D.1/3
Question 83. The word “portrayed could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 84. What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
Question 85. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of egg……..EXCEPT
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there have been a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them – their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them. Question 86. The passage is mainly about A. How the Beatles became more successful than other groups B. Why the Beatles split up after 7 years
C. The Beatles’ fame and success D. Many people’s ability to sing a Beatles song Question 87. The four boys of the Beatles A. Came from the same family B. Were at the same age
C. Came from a town in the north of England D. Received good training in music Question 88. The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to A. Notorious B. Bad C. Shocking D. Popular Question 89. The first songs of the Beatles were____ A. Written by themselves B. Broadcast on the radio
C. Paid a lot of money D. Written by black Americans Question 90. What is not true about the Beatles? A. The members had no training in music B. They had a long stable career
C. They became famous when they wrote their own songs D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans Question 91. The Beatles stopped their live performances because A. They had earned enough money B. They did not want to work with each other
C. They spent more time writing their own songs D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans. Question 92. The tone of the passage is that of………….. A. Admiration B. Criticism C. Neutral D. Sarcasm Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the first month of their lives, babies" responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences in adult stress and intonation can influence babies" emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech. Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch, loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and emphasize certain words. More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. Other words, babies enter the world with the ability to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language. Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults. Question 93. The passage mentions all of the following as ways adults modify their speech when talking to babies EXCEPT A. giving all words equal emphasis B. speaking with shorter sentences C. speaking more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds Question 94. The word "emphasize" in the passage is closest in meaning to A.stress B. repeat C. explain D. leave out Question 95. Which of the following can be inferred about the findings described in paragraph 2? A. Babies who are exposed to more than one language can speak earlier than babies exposed to a single language. B. Mothers from different cultures speak to their babies in similar ways. C. Babies ignore facial expressions in comprehending aural language. D. The mothers observed by the researchers were consciously teaching their babies to speak. Question 96. What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language? A. Babies begin to understand words in songs. B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions. C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults. D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds. Question 97. According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot understand them? A. They understand the rhythm. B. They enjoy the sound. C. They can remember them easily. D. They focus on the meaning of their parents" words. Question 98. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds B. The differences between a baby"s and an adult"s ability to comprehend language C. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development D. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice Question 99. Why does the author mention a bell and a rattle in lines 3-4? A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like Question 100. The word "they" in the passage refer to …… A. responses B. sorts of auditory stimuli C. the babies D. sounds ------------THE END---------- TEST 03 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. legal B. diverse C. polite D. complete Question 2. A. interview B. compliment C. sacrifice D. represent Question 3: A. weather B. police C. divide D. attract Question 4: A. comfortable B. employment C. important D. surprising Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 5. A. mood B. flood C. spoon D. moon Question 6. A. listens B. reviews C. protects D. enjoys Question 7: A. flour B. hour C. pour D. sour Question 8: A. kites B. catches C. oranges D. buzzes Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 9. If he were younger, he ______ a professional running competition now. A. will join B. had joined C. would have joined D. would join Question 10. The children ______ to bed before their parents came home from work. A. were all going B. had all gone C. had all been going D. have all gone Question 11. Linda refused ______ in the musical performance because she was sick. A. to participate B. participate C. participating D. to participating Question 12. There has been little rain in this area for months, ______? A. has it B. has there C. hasn’t it D. hasn’t there Question 13. David was deported on account of his expired visa. He ______ it renewed. A. must have had B. should have had C. needn’t have had D. mightn’t have had Question 14. The proposal ______ by the environmentalists to grow more trees has received approval from the council. A. which suggested B. be suggested C. suggested D. was suggested Question 15. Project-based learning provides wonderful opportunities for students to develop their ______. A. creative B. creativity C. create D. creatively Question 16. Violent films may have a negative ______ on children. A. opinion B. influence C. dependence D. decision Question 17. A good leader should not be conservative, but rather ______ to new ideas. A. receptive B. acceptable C. permissive D. applicable Question 18. ______ individuals are those who share the same hobbies, interests, or points of view. A. Light-hearted B. Like-minded C. Even-handed D. Open-minded Question 19. The child has no problem reciting the poem; he has ______ it to memory. A. devoted B. added C. committed D. admitted Question 20. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually ______ for Todd when he reached the final round of the tournament. A. looked up B. gone on C. taken up D. turned on Question 21: A/An_______is an official document stating that you have passed an examination, completed a course, or achieved some necessary qualifications A.certificate B. requirement C. education D. test Question 22: _________flowers are usually made of plastic or silk. A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue Question 23: The police have begun an__________ into the accident which happened this afternoon. A. investigating B. investigatory C. investigate D. investigation Question 24. It was no accident that he broke my glasses. He did it _______ purpose. A. with B. on C. by D. about Question 25: We _______ touch since we _______ school three years ago. A. lost / have left B. have lost / leave C. have lost / left D. were losing / had left Question 26. There was a___________ table in the middle of the room. A. Japanese round beautiful wooden B. beautiful wooden round Japanese C. beautiful wooden Japanese round D. beautiful round Japanese wooden Question 27. The more challenging the job is, _______. A. the more interesting he finds B. the more he finds it interesting C. he finds it more interesting D. the more interesting it is to him Question 28: She asked ________so embarrassed when he saw Carole. A. why did Mai look B. did Mai look C. why Mai looked D. why looked Question 29: The old man ______ to hospital early. I think they did it too late. A. must have taken B. should have taken C. must have been taken D. should have been taken Question 30.When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will______ that position. A. take over B. catch on C. stand for D. hold on Question 31: I read the contract again and again ______ avoiding making spelling mistakes. A. in terms of B. by means of C. with a view to D. in view of Question 32: ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more. A. To pass this test B. For being passed this test C. In order pass this test D. So that to pass this test Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 33. The first few days at university can be very daunting, but with determination and positive attitude, freshmen will soon fit in with the new environment. A. interesting B. memorable C. serious D. depressing Question 34. Deforestation may seriously jeopardize the habitat of many species in the local area. A. do harm to B. set fire to C. give rise to D. make way for Question 35: Lack of water and nutrients has impeded the growth of these cherry tomato plants A. promoted B. assisted C. realized D. prevented Question 36: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.” A. a subject that I don’t understand B. a theme that I like to discuss C. a book that is never opened D. an object that I really love Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37. In this writing test, candidates will not be penalized for minor mechanical mistakes. A. punished B. rewarded C. motivated D. discouraged Question 38. After their long-standing conflict had been resolved, the two families decided to bury the hatchet. A. become enemies B. become friends C. give up weapons D. reach an agreement Question 39: For most male spiders courtship is a perilous procedure, for they may be eaten by females. A. complicated B. dangerous C. safe D. peculiar Question 40: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work. A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. miserable D. calm Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 41. John and Mary are talking about what to do after class. John: “______” Mary: “Yes, I’d love to.” A. Do you often have time for a drink after class? B. Would you like to have a drink after class? C. Do you often go out for a drink after class? D. Would you like tea or coffee after class? Question 42. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future. Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.” Daisy: “______” A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. There’s no doubt about that. C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. I am sorry to hear that. Question 43: - Cindy: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!” - Mary: “………..” A. Yes, all right. B. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday. C. Never mention it D. Thanks, but I’m afraid Question 44: Two students Peter and Anny are talking about women’s role. - Peter: “ In my opinion, women would not go to work.” - Anny: “.........................” A. Yes, I don’t agree B. What nonsense ! C. Yes, I do D. Yes, it was ever Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 49. GOOD FRIENDS Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental well-being. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to (45) ______ our lives. The study concentrated (46) ______ the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how much contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances. Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (47) ______ to a far greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socioeconomic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to (48) ______ one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviours that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (49) _______, our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges. (Source: Academic Vocabulary in Use by Michael McCarthy and Felicity O’Dell) Question 45. A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand Question 46. A. in B. with C. on D. at Question 47. A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance Question 48. A. who B. whom C. what D. that Question 49. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 50 to 56. We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise. The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure. Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of. Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and refreshment. (Source: http://www.importantindia.com) Question 50. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity Question 51. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true? A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult. B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician. C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure. D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading. Question 52. The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained Question 53. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure Question 54. The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled Question 55. According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______. A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels Question 56. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to booklovers? A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man C. The wonderland D. A favorite book Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 57 to 64. The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and Germany. Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France, an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France. Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them. Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing than the ordinarylicence. In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two, three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and individuality unknown in France. France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world. The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind. (Source: https://britannicalearn.com) Question 57. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The nature of education around the world in modern times B. Systems of higher education in France and Germany C. The origin of higher education system in Europe D. The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries Question 58. The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. proximity B. discrepancy C. similarity D. uniqueness Question 59. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. schools B. universities C. examinations D. branches Question 60. Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3? A. Most of them have no connection with universities. B. They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical training. C. Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by universities. D. They offer better accommodations and facilities than universities. Question 61. According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by ______. A. the staff of the university B. the national government officials C. the regional government officials D. the staff of other universities Question 62. According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend different universities during their undergraduate studies? A. The university staff have become far more mobile and occupied. B. The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of choice. C. University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all students. D. Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less demanding. Question 63. The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. representatives B. directions C. structures D. delegates Question 64. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities. B. It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Germany. C. Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in France. D. The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in France. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 65. Every member of the class were invited to the party by the form teacher. A B C D Question 66. Historically, it was the 3rd Asian Games in Japan that tennis, volleyball, table tennis and hockey A B C were added. D Question 67. Though formally close friends, they have now been estranged from each other due to some A B C regrettable misunderstandings. D Question 68: When precipitation occurs, some of it evaporates, some runs off the surface it strikes, and A B C some sinking into the ground. D Question 69. What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and A B C policemen who had been laid off from their jobs. D Question 70: Opened the letter from her boyfriend, she feltextremely excited. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 71. Harry no longer smokes a lot. A. Harry now smokes a lot. B. Harry used to smoke a lot. C. Harry didn’t use to smoke a lot. D. Harry rarely smoked a lot. Question 72. “I’ll call you as soon as I arrive at the airport,” he said to me. A. He objected to calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. B. He promised to call me as soon as he arrived at the airport. C. He denied calling me as soon as he arrived at the airport. D. He reminded me to call him as soon as he arrived at the airport. Question 73. People think that traffic congestion in the downtown area is due to the increasing number of private cars. A. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is blamed for the increasing number of private cars. B. The increasing number of private cars is thought to be responsible for traffic congestion in the downtown area. C. The increasing number of private cars is attributed to traffic congestion in the downtown area. D. Traffic congestion in the downtown area is thought to result in the increasing number of private cars. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 74. The young girl has great experience of nursing. She has worked as a hospital volunteer for years. A. Before she worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing. B. Much as she has worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing. C. Having worked as a hospital volunteer for years, the young girl has great experience of nursing. D. With great experience of nursing, the young girl has worked as a hospital volunteer for years. Question 75. Peter told us about his leaving the school. He did it on his arrival at the meeting. A. Only after his leaving the school did Peter inform us of his arrival at the meeting. B. Not until Peter told us that he would leave the school did he arrive at the meeting. C. Hardly had Peter informed us about his leaving the school when he arrived at the meeting. D. No sooner had Peter arrived at the meeting than he told us about his leaving the school. Question 76: He had just finished eating his breakfast. Then he fell down A.Hardly did he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down B. Hardly he had finished eating his breakfast when he fell down C. Hardly have he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down D.Hardly had he finished eating his breakfast when he fell down Question 77: She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country. A. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines. B. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines. C. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines. D. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 78 to 82.Many people enjoy lying in bed in the morning, but can you imagine having to spend 90 days in bed? Could you stand the boredom and the frustration of not being(78)..... to get up? That was the task that faced 14 volunteers when they started out on a bed-rest experiment being conducted (79)….. the European Space Agency. The study had a serious purpose: to investigate the changes that take place in the human body during long-duration spaceflight. Lying in a horizontal position was the best way of (80)…… weightlessness. The aim was to discover what effect period of weightlessness will have on the health of astronauts spending several months on the International Space Station. The volunteers ate their meals, took showers and underwent medical tests without ever sitting up. That"s even tougher than it sounds, especially when you (81) ..…. that no visitors were permitted. However, each volunteer did have a mobile phone, as well as access to the latest films, computer games and music. Surprisingly, Everyone was in a good (82) ..…. at the end of the 90 days, "I would do it again," said one of the volunteers. "It was disorientating, but we knew we were "contributing to medical research and space exploration." Question 78: A. enabled B. allowed C. granted D. approved Question 79: A. by B. on C. for D. about Question 80: A. simulated B. simulate C. to simulate D. simulating Question 81: A. reckon B. realise C. regard D. remark Question 82: A. attitude B. spirit C. feeling D. mood Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 83 to 89 For more than six million American children, coming home after school means coming back to an empty house. Some deal with the situation by watching TV. Some may hide. But all of them have something in common. They spend part of each day alone. They are called “latchkey children”. They are children who look after themselves while their parents work. And their bad condition has become a subject of concern. Lynette Long was once the principal of an elementary school. She said, “we had a school rule against wearing jewelry. A lot of kids had chains around their necks with keys attached. I was constantly telling them to put the keys inside shirts. There were so many keys; it never came to my mind what they meant.” Slowly, she learned that they were house keys. She and her husband began talking to the children who had keys. They learned of the effect working couples and single parents were having on their children. Fear was the biggest problem faced by children at home alone. One in three latchkey children the Longs talked to reported being frightened. Many had nightmares and were worried about their own safety The most common way latchkey children deal with their fears is by hiding. They may hide in a shower stall, under a bed or in a closet. The second is TV. They often turn the volume up. It’s hard to get statistics on latchkey children, the Longs have learned. Most parents are slow to admit that they leave their children alone. Question 83: The phrase “an empty house” in the passage mostly means . A. a house with too much space B. a house with no furniture C. a house with no people inside D. a house with nothing inside Question 84: One thing that the children in the passage share is that . A. they all wear jewelry B. they spend part of each day alone C. they all watch TV D. they are from single-parent families Question 85: The phrase “latchkey children” in the passage means children who . A. look after themselves while their parents are not at home B. close doors with keys and watch TV by themselves C. like to carry latches and keys with them everywhere D. are locked inside houses with latches and keys Question 86: What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Why kids hate going home B. Children’s activities at home C. Bad condition of latchkey children D. How kids spend free time Question 87: What do latchkey children suffer most from when they are at home alone? A. Tiredness B. Boredom C. Loneliness D. Fear Question 88: Lynette Long learned of latchkey children’s problems by . A. visiting their homes B. talking to them C. delivering questionaires D. interviewing their parents Question 89: It’s difficult to find out the number of latchkey children because . A. there are too many of them in the whole country B. most parents are reluctant to admit that they leave their children alone C. they hide themselves in shower stalls or under beds D. they do not give information about themselves for safety reasons Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 90 to 97. A folk culture is small, isolated, cohesive, conservative, nearly self-sufficient group that is homogeneous in custom and race, with a strong family or clan structure and highly developed rituals. Order is maintained through sanctions based in the religion or family, and interpersonal relationships are strong. Tradition is paramount, and change comes infrequently and slowly. There is relatively little division of labor into specialized duties. Rather, each person is expected to perform a great variety of tasks, though duties may differ between the sexes. Most goods are handmade, and a subsistence economy prevails. Individualism is weakly developed in folk cultures, as are social classes. Unaltered folk cultures no longer exist in industrialized countries such as the United States and Canada. Perhaps the nearest modern equivalent in Anglo-America is the Amish, a German American farming sect that largely renounces the products and labor saving devices of the industrial age. In Amish areas, horse-drawn buggies till serve as a local transportation device, and the faithful are not permitted to own automobiles. The Amish’s central religious concept of Demut, “humility”, clearly reflects the weakness of individualism and social class so typical of folk cultures, and there is a corresponding strength of Amish group identity. Rarely do the Amish marry outside their sect. The religion, a variety of the Mennonite faith, provides the principal mechanism for maintaining order. By contrast, a popular culture is a large heterogeneous group, often highly individualistic and constantly changing. Relationships tend to be impersonal, and a pronounced division of labor exists, leading to the establishment of many specialized professions. Secular institutions, of control such as the police and army take the place of religion and family in maintaining order, and a money-based economy prevails. Because of these contrasts, “popular” may be viewed as clearly different from “folk”. The popular is replacing the folk in industrialized countries and in many developing nations, Folk-made objects give way to their popular equivalent, usually because the popular item is more quickly or cheaply produced, is easier or time saving to use, or lends more prestige to the owner. Question 90: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Two decades in modern society B. The influence of industrial technology C. The characteristics of “folk” and “popular” societies D. The specialization of labor in Canada and the United States Question 91: Which of the following is typical of folk cultures? A. There is a money-based economy. B. Social change occurs slowly. C. Contact with other cultures is encouraged. D. Each person develops one specialized skill. Question 92: What does the author imply about the United States and Canada? A. They value folk cultures. B. They have no social classes. C. They have popular cultures. D. They do not value individualism. Question 93: The phrase “largely renounces” is closest in meaning to _________. A. generally rejects B. greatly modifies C. loudly declares D. often criticizes Question 94: What is the main source of order in Amish society? A. The government B. The economy C. The clan structure D. The religion Question 95: Which of the following statements about Amish beliefs does the passage support? A. A variety of religious practices is tolerated. B. Individualism and competition are important. C. Pre-modern technology is preferred. D. People are defined according to their class. Question 96: The word “prevails” is closest in meaning to _________. A. dominates B. provides C. develops D. invests Question 97: Which of following is NOT given as a reason why folk-made objects are replaced by mass-produced objects? A. cost B. quality C. prestige D. convenience Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions: Question 98: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place. A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now. | B. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now. | C. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now. | D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now. |
Question 99 : She was so busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. A. She was very busy that she couldn’t answer the phone. B. She was too busy to answer the phone. C. She was too busy not to answer the phone. D. She was very busy so that she couldn’t answer the phone Question 100. It’s no use reading that book. A. You should read that book. B. That book has not been used. C. That book is not worth reading. D. I have used the book for a long time. ------------THE END---------- TEST 04 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. helped B. booked C. kissed D. waited Question 2: A. educate B. eliminate C. certificate D. dedicate Question 3: | A. requested | B. imposed | C. postponed | D. breathed | Question 4: | A. struggle | B. destruction | C. suffer | D. support |
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 5: A. entrance B. machine C. rubber D. instance Question 6: A. mathematics B. biology C. experiment D. philosophy Question 7: | A. confide | B. expect | C. research | D. secret | Question 8: | A. newspaper | B. integrate | C. enterprise | D. symbolic |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 9: Someone who is___________ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular. A. powerful B. optimistic C. stagnant D. pessimistic Question 10. Does it _______ any difference to you where we go for dinner? A. take B. do C. make D. go Question 11: My mother used to be a woman of great _______, but now she gets old and looks pale. A. beauty B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beautify Question 12: _________, an organism must be able to adapt to changing factors in its environment. A. If survival B. For surviving C. It survives D. To survive Question 13: I _______ a terrible accident while I _______ on the beach. A. see / am walking B. saw / was walking C. was seeing / walked D. have seen / were walking Question 14. These two boys look identical. They _____ twins. A. must have been B.must be C. should be D. should have been Question 15: _________, the less polluted the environment will be. A. The more polluted landfills will be B. The more landfills are there C. The less landfills are polluted D. The fewer landfills we have Question 16: George told Mary that he ______the film three times. A. had seen B. saw C. have seen D. sees Question 17: He_______a soldier three years ago. A. is said to be B. was said being C. was said have been D. is said to have been Question 18: John lost the _______ bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because of his carelessness. A. beautiful Japanese blue new B. new beautiful blue Japanese C. beautiful new blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue Question 19: He is coming______a cold after a night out in the rain. A. away from B. down with C. across with D. up with Question 20: Will you take care _______ my little dog when I am _______ business? A. through / away B. about / at C. for / over D. of / on Question 21: When first _______ to the market, these products enjoyed great success. A. being introduced | B. having introduced | C. introduced | D. introducing |
Question 22: I’m sure you will have _______ great time here! I’m sure that we can find something to amuse you. A. a | B. an | C. the | D. no article |
Question 23: If you _______ economics to degree level, you ______ something about the workings of market economy. A. have studied / should understand | B. will study / have understood | C. study / used to understand | D. would study / had understood |
Question 24: _______ Albert Einstein became famous mainly for his work on relativity, he received the Nobel Prize for his work on photoelectric law. A. Because | B. As long as | C. Although | D. Ever since |
Question 25: On the giant plane there are ______ the jet needs. A. twice engines than | B. twice as engines as | C. as twice many engines as | D. twice as many engines as |
Question 26: Eye behavior seems to be particular ________ and is generally used to indicate whether one is open to communication. A. important | B. importance | C. importantly | D. importable |
Question 27: In the United Kingdom, independent schools are _______ private schools, governed by an elected board of governors and independent of many of the regulations and conditions that apply to _______ schools. A. free-payed / scholarship-funding | B. fare-payed / state-funding | C. fare-paying / scholarship-funded | D. fee-paying / state-funded |
Question 28: It is highly desirable that a new president ______ for this college. A. is appointed | B. will be appointed | C. be appointed | D. has been appointed |
Question 29: Blue whales, the world’s largest animals, which were driven to the edge of extinction by hunting, have been _______ again in British waters for the first time in at least 20 years. A. viewed | B. displayed | C. glanced | D. sighted |
Question 30: Convinced of the importance of education, modern states “invest” in institutions of learning to get back “interest” in the form of a large group of _______ young men who are potential leaders. A. enlightened | B. cultivated | C. qualified | D. nourished |
Question 31: Scientists are trying to find out what advantage should be ____ the natural resources in this area. A. taken off | B. taken of | C. taken up | D. taken on |
Question 32: In the cross-lake swimming race, a boat will be _______ in case of an emergency. A. standing by | B. turning on | C. getting on | D. running down |
Mark the letter A,B,C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 33: “Would you mind turning down your stereo?’’ - “______________” A. I’m really sorry! I’m not paying attention B. Yes, I do C. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that D. No. I don’t Question 34: Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!” Mr John: “_________” A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in. C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so. Question 35: - Kate: “What do you say to a weekend in New York?” - Bob: “__________.” A. Sounds like fun | B. I think so | C. It doesn’t matter | D. I really envy you |
Question 36: - Clara: “I am gaining weight. I need to see a doctor.” - Sarah: “But I think you eat too much. ___________.” A. Neglect of health is doctor’s wealth | B. Laugh at your ills, and save doctors’ bills | C. Diet cures more than the doctor | D. An apple a day keeps the doctor away |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part thatneeds correction in each of the following questions.Question 37: Physical therapists help patients relearn how to use their bodies after disease or injure. A B C D Question 38: Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia A B was the first public school of its kind. C D Question 39: I found my new contact lenses strangely at first, but I got used to them in the end. A B C D Question 40: You surely are not surprised to be told that you usually listen to music not only with your ears but also your whole body. A. surely | B. be told | C. also | D. whole body |
Question 41: In the classroom, students keen to receive body message of enthusiasm or boring about the subject matter being taught can sense confidence or frustration from the unconscious behaviors of teachers. A. keen to | B. boring | C. being | D. sense |
Question 42: The Web was developed in the early 1990s at the European Center for Nuclear Research as a medium through where scientists in Geneva could share information. A. was developed | B. the early | C. as | D. where |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 43: His physical conditions was no impediment to his career as a violinist. A. help B. impatience C. hindrance D. impossibility Question 44: I’m sorry I can’t come out this weekend – I’m up to my ears in work. A. very busy B. very bored C. very scared D. very idle Question 45: Before you can improve your nonverbal communication skills, you need to figure out what you’re doing right and where there is room for improvement. A. something is not perfect | B. something receives more praise | C. something decreases your motivation | D. something is not easily noticeable |
Question 46: You need to stay focused on the moment-to-moment experience in order to fully understand what’s going on. A. temporary | B. enjoyable | C. immediate | D. memorable |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 47: He decided not to buy the fake watch and wait until he had more money. A. authentic B. forger C. original D. faulty Question 48: The consequences of the typhoon were disastrous due to the lack of precautionary measures. A. damaging B. beneficial C. severe D. physical Question 49: Against great odds in the 20th century China has not only survived, it is moving forward dramatically. A. likelihood | B. advantage | C. convenience | D. success |
Question 50: All forms of pose, sham, learned nonsense, academic stupidity and social humbug are politely but effectively shown the door. A. deception | B. honesty | C. modesty | D. shyness |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that isclosest in meaning to each of the following questions.Question 51: Had Kathy studied hard, she would have passed the examination. A. Kathy knew that she would succeed in the examination. B. But for her hard study, Kathy would have succeed in the examination. C. Kathy studied very hard but she did not succeed in the examination. D. Kathy did not study hard, so she failed. Question 52: As soon as he approached the house, the policeman stopped him. A. No sooner had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. B. Hardly had he approached the house than the policeman stopped him. C. No sooner had he approached the house when the policeman stopped him. D. Hardly he had approached the house when the policeman stopped him. Question 53: The leader of the group came up with the best solution to the problem. A. The leader of the group could solved the problem easily. | B. No one could solve the problem except the leader of the group. | C. The best solution to the problem was thought of by the leader of the group. | D. The best solution to the problem was carried out by the leader of the group. |
Question 54: Choosing a suitable job is really important to adolescents. A. It is really important to choose a suitable job for adolescents. | B. It is of great importance for adolescents to choose a suitable job. | C. Choosing a suitable job for adolescents is a really important affair. | D. The choice of a suitable job for adolescents is really important. |
Question 55: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place. A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now. | B. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now. | C. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now. | D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now. |
Question 56: The less junk food one consumes, the less unlikely he is to spend a healthy life. A. If a person does not consume any junk food, he is sure to have a problem-free life. | B. No health problem can surely be experienced in life if junk food is ignored. | C. Living a healthy life that is free of health problems is directly proportioned to junk food consumption. | D. Unless one wants to lead a healthy life, he should consume junk food regularly. |
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 57: Vietnam exports a lot of rice. It is grown mainly in the south of the country. A. Vietnam exports a lot of rice which grown mainly in the south of the country. B. Vietnam exports a lot of rice, that is mainly grown in the south of the country. C. Vietnam exports a lot of rice grown mainly in the south of the country. D. Vietnam, which is grown mainly in the south of the country, exports a lot of rice. Question 58: Put your coat on. You will get cold. A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on. B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold. C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold. D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold. Question 59: At last, he could reach the top of the mountain. But, unfortunately, he had nothing to eat or drink all day. A. Although he succeeded in climbing the mountain, he just found something to eat or drink before it’s too late. | B. Not only had he failed to reach the summit of the mountain, but he had had nothing to eat or drink all day. | C. He reached the peak after mountain climb attempt, but he realized that he had no food or water. | D. No sooner had he reached the top of the mountain than he ran out of food and water. |
Question 60: “Must you do it all tonight? Couldn’t you leave some for tomorrow?” Mike asked Jenny. A. Mike asked Jenny if she might do it all that night and leave some for the following day. | B. Mike asked Jenny if she had to do it all that night or if she couldn’t leave some for the next day. | C. Mike asked Jenny if she could do it all that night without leaving some for the next day. | D. Mike asked Jenny if she had to do it all that night or leave some for the following day. |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 61 to 65.Paragraph 1: The combination of music and study has long been a source of disagreement between adults and children. Parents and teachers alike maintain that silence is important when learning, (61) ….. youngsters insist that their favourite sounds help them concentrate. Now a study shows the grown-ups have been right all along. Psychologists in Florida tested how fast students wrote essays with and without music in the (62) ……. They found that the sounds slowed progress down by about sixty words per hour. "This demonstrates clearly that it is difficult to cope with listening and writing at the same time," said Dr Sarah Randall. She also(63) ……. to conclusion that it is a myth that instrumental music is less distracting that vocals. "All types of music had the same effect," she said in her report. "One"s ability to pay attention and write fluently is likely to be disturbed(64)….. both vocal and instrumental music," she added. Dr Randall claimed the research demonstrated that the idea that music could improve performance was wrong. "Writing and essay is a complex task. You are recalling information and putting it in order. An additional stimulus in the form of music is bound to distract. But music is not the only distractor. What is (65)…… worrying is that more and more teenagers are studying in front of the television. Question 61: A. whereas B. unlike C. besides D. despite Question 62: A. setting B. background C. surrounding D. circumstances Question 63: A. reached B. drew C. arrived D. came Question 64: A. by B. in C. for D. from Question 65: A. partly B.largely C. particularly D. mainly Paragraph 2: One (66)_____ to understand social-networking sites like Facebook and MySpace is to consider that younger digital natives are not necessarily (67)_____ exhibitionists when they post photographs of themselves and share personal details there. (68)_____, these users are living a life in (69)_____ consciousness is spread out evenly over two platforms: (70)_____ life and the Web. Rather than feeling schizophrenic or somehow pathological, digital natives understand that these two realms divide the self much as speech and the written word divide language, a division that humans have lived with for a long time without going bonkers. (Adapted from “Living On The Radio” By Sasha Frere-Jones, The New Yorker, April 20, 2009) Question 66: | A. way | B. habit | C. road | D. rule | Question 67: | A. coming | B. flying | C. being | D. going | Question 68: | A. Still | B. Rather | C. Yet | D. Instead | Question 69: | A. whom | B. which | C. whose | D. that | Question 70: | A. factual | B. right | C. true | D. real |
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheetto indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 71 to 77. Paragraph 1: Around 365 B.C, in ancient Greece, the great teacher Plato told a story about a place called Atlantis. Plato described Atlantis as a continent in the Atlantic Ocean. He said it had been the home of powerful people who were destroyed when the continent was swallowed by the sea. Ever since Plato’s time, people have wondered if the story about Atlantis was really true. Was there ever such a place as Atlantis? During the Middle Ages, many people believed in the legend of Atlantis. Some men even made voyages to find the “lost continent”. Later, most people believed Atlantis to be just a myth. Scientists could find to no evidence to show that such a place had ever existed. Ideas change in time, however, for now some scientists think that Atlantis might have been a real place. A Greek professor has offered a new theory. He says that Atlantis was not a continent in the Atlantic Ocean an island called Thera in the Aegean Sea. The professor says that 3500 years ago much of Thera collapsed into the sea a volcano erupted. He thinks that before the explosion Thera had been the home of people called Minoans. The Minoans were sea traders who ruled the Aegean Sea from 2000 B.C. to 1250 B.C. Scientists who have come to investigate Thera have found an accident city buried beneath volcanic ash and stone. It appears that the people who lives in the city had an advanced civilization. They were probably Mimoans. Is there the “lost continent” of Atlantis? No one may ever know for certain. Atlantis may remain a riddle without an answer. Question 71: The word in paragraph 3 that means “fell down” is ____________. A. collapsed B. existed C. erupted D. rode Question 72: A lot of people in the Middle Ages ____________. A. thought that Atlantis was only a myth. B. found some evidence about the “lost continent” C. made voyage to visit Atlantis D. believed in the existence of Atlantis Question 73: Who were the ancient Minoans? A. scientists B. sea traders C. teachers D. Greek professors. Question 74: The word “explosion” in paragraph 3 can be replaced by ____________. A. investigation. B. invasion C. excursion D. eruption Question 75: Why did Thera collapse into the sea? A. A volcano erupted B. Stones buried it C. Noone believed it D. Thera was lower land Question 76: Which statement seems true for the passage? A. Plato was a Greek teacher who lived in Atlantis. B. There are different theories about Atlantis. C. There are no different theories about Atlantis. D. Everyone knows where the lost continent is. Question 77: What is the best title for this passage ? A. Atlantis B. Searches of scientists C. The Search of a Lost continent D. Legend of Atlantis. Paragraph 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D onyour answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 78 to84. Most people start smoking when they are in their teens and are addicted by the time they reach adulthood. Some have tried to quit but have returned to cigarettes because smoking is such a strong addiction. It is a habit that is very difficult to break. There are many different reasons why people smoke. Three of the main reasons that young people smoke are to look mature, to be like their friends, and to experiment. Since teens see older people all around them smoking, especially their parents and relatives, they smoke to act older. If their friends or peers smoke, they may feel pressured into doing the same to be accepted. The last reason is the excitement of experimenting with something that is forbidden. In Massachusetts it is against the law for anyone under 18 years old to smoke. Usually parents do not allow their under age teens to smoke. Therefore, smoking becomes very attractive. It is exciting to get cigarettes and sneak away to smoke without being caught. Adults smoke for other reasons. They may have a lot of stress and pressures because of economic and personal problems. They may be unemployed or working but not making enough money to take care of themselves and their families. They may be homeless, or they may be dealing with alcohol or cocaine/heroin addictions. Some may be in bad marriages or relationships in which there is physical and/or verbal abuse. All these people may smoke to feel relaxed or to give them energy while going through a hard time. Whether young or old, some people smoke to control their weight. Smokers, on the average, weigh seven pounds less than non-smokers. Smoking reduces a person"s appetite. It lessens his/her sense of taste and smell. This could be why ex-smokers gain weight after quitting cigarettes. Food tastes and smells so much better. Finally, there are people who say they love to smoke. Smoking gives them pleasure. It just makes them feel good. (Source: http://admissions.ucc.edu/Media/Website%20Resources/documents/ALC/english/rc/smoking/rcex2.htm) Question 78: What is the purpose of the whole passage? A. to contrast young and old smokers | B. to explain why people start smoking | C. to demonstrate the attraction of cigarettes among the young | D. to show the similarities between young and old smokers |
Question 79: The purpose of paragraph 2 is to ________. A. explain why young people decide to smoke | B. warn young people how dangerous smoking is | C. show how exciting smoking can be | D. suggest that other people influence the decision of young people who start smoking |
Question 80: The word “peers” in paragraph 2 means _________. A. members of the aristocracy | B. mentors | C. peeping Toms | D. persons of a similar age |
Question 81: Adults smoke for all of the following reasons EXCEPT ________. A. to deal with stress | B. to cope with financial difficulties | C. to deal with relationship problems | D. to appear more mature |
Question 82: In paragraph 3, how does sentence 3 relate to sentence 1? A. It is a contradiction | B. It is a cause | C. It is an example | D. It is an effect |
Question 83: The word “abuse” in paragraph 3 means ________. A. excessive use | B. inappropriate use | C. mistreatment | D. argument |
Question 84: The main purpose of paragraph 4 is ________. A. to contrast the reasons why young and old people take up smoking | B. to show a common cause for smoking among people of all ages | C. to describe the possible effects of smoking | D. to warn smokers of the dangers of smoking |
Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 85 to 92. Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet of water released by melting glaciers. For several periods of time, the first beginning around 60,000 BC. and the last ending around 7,000BC. , this land bridge was open. The first people travelled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted. They brought with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical understanding, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth and song, which complemented their scientific and historical knowledge of the lives of animals and people. All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral literatures of power and beauty. Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic forms, are easily disposed to think of “literature” only as something written. But on reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful as well as the more frequently employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its mode of presentation. Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language, culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant verbal achievement results from the struggle in words between tradition and talent. Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public verbal form. Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not without consequences for an understanding of Native American literature. The essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving communication, an “emergent form”, the shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly realized over the course of the performance. In performing verbal art, the performer assumes responsibility for the manners as well as the content of the performance, while the audience assumes the responsibility for evaluating the performer’s competence in both areas. It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display of skill and shapes the emerging performance. Where written literature provides us with a tradition of texts, oral literature offers a tradition of performances. Question 85: According to the passage, why did the first people who came to North America leave their homeland? A. They were hoping to find a better climate. B. They were seeking freedom. C. They were following instructions given in a dream. D. They were looking for food. Question 86: The phrase “are easily disposed” is closet in meaning to A. demonstrate reluctance B. readily encourage others C. have a tendency D. often fail Question 87: The word “Ultimately” is closet in meaning to A. frequently B. normally C. in the end D. whenever possible Question 88: The word “compelling” is closet in meaning to A. joyous B. intricate C. competing D. forceful Question 89: What is the main point of the second paragraph ? A. Oral narratives are a valid form of literature. B. Public performance is essential to verbal art. C. Native Americans have a strong oral tradition in art. D. The production of literature provides employment for many artists. Question 90: According to the passage, what responsibility does the audience of a verbal art performance have? A. They provide financial support for performances. B. They judge the quality of the content and presentation. C. They participate in the performance by chanting responses. D. They determine the length of the performance by requesting a continuation. Question 91: Which of the following is NOT true of the Native American literature discussed in the passage? A. It involves acting B. It has ancient origins C. It has a set form D. It expresses an inner vision. Question 92: What can be inferred from the passage about the difference between written and oral literature? A. Written literature reflects social values better than oral literature does. B. Written literature involves less interaction between audience and creator during the creative progress than oral literature does. C. Written literature usually is not based on historical events, whereas oral literature is. D. Written literature is not as highly respected as oral literature is. Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 93 to 100. Over millions of years, the world’s climate has undergone a series of dramatic changes that have most likely resulted from oscillations, or pendulum-like swings, in the rotation of the Earth. One such dramatic climate change was what is commonly called the Ice Age and was in reality a series of phases of colder and warmer weather that commenced approximately two million years ago. What we today refer to as the Ice Age was in reality a series of weaker and stronger glacial periods during which sheets of ice expanded and moved varying distances south followed by interglacial periods when the glaciers melted to varying degrees and retreated to the north. These successive periods of colder and warmer weather have had strikingeffects on the world’s landscape and on the life forms that inhabit the land. Each glacial period in the series of colder and warmer phases had a different impact, depending on how far south the ice extended, how long it lasted before melting, and how much it changed the landscape and sea levels. The effect on the world’s landscape that resulted from the changing climate was dramatic. Vast sheets of glacial ice in the northern latitudes of the world cut deep u-shaped valleys that still exist today and caused huge boulders and enormous amounts of clay and dust to be deposited across North America, Europe, and Asia and to reshape the landscape of these areas. As the glacial sheets of ice crept southward on the northern continents, they trapped large amounts of water. This served to reduce the amount of moisture in the atmosphere that could fall as rain or snow, reducing the amount of rainfall and leading to further aridity and the expansion of deserts in the tropical and subtropical regions. In addition, with so much water held in the glacial ice, the sea level fell, resulting in the exposure of land that today is covered with water. During glacial periods there was a land bridge from France to England, the islands of Japan and Java were connected to the Asian mainland, and Asia was linked to North America over what is today the Bering Strait. Then, during interglacial periods, when the glacial ice retreated to the north, more water became available as glaciers melted. Vegetation expanded with the increase in rainfall, and coastlines changed with the increase in ocean water; during interglacial periods, many areas that today are landmasses were covered with water. Prehistoric people seem to have adapted well to these environmental changes. They moved from place to place in response to climatic changes. They could be found living in the grasslands of Asia, in the forests of southeast Asia, and in the temperate areas of southern Europe, and they moved into and out of the more northerly regions as the glacial regions retreated and advanced. Their diet changed to adapt to the changes in plant and animal life during succeeding glacial and interglacial periods, and the use of stone tools, the building of shelters, and the use of clothing came about during this period. It was these sorts of adaptations that enabled humans to survive and progress while many other species failed to survive and thrive during this period in the way that prehistoric people did. (Adapted from “Climate Change”) Question 93: What is stated about the Ice Age in paragraph 1? A. It caused the rotation of the Earth to swing | B. It was a period of sustained intensely cold weather | C. It came about as a result of variation in the Earth’s rotation | D. It lasted for two million years |
Question 94: Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 1? A. During the Ice Age, there were periods when the glaciers moved forcefully and other periods when the movement of glaciers was weaker. | B. During glacial periods, the glaciers moved to colder areas in the north, while during interglacial periods, glaciers moved toward the south. | C. During the Ice Age, glaciers tended to freeze north of the equator and melt south of the equator. | D. The Ice Age really consisted of colder glacial periods and warmer interglacial periods. |
Question 95: The word “striking” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _________. A. remarkable | B. violent | C. attractive | D. dangerous |
Question 96: All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 1 as affecting the impact of a glacial period EXCEPT _________. A. the amount of area that was covered with ice | B. the length of time that a glacier lasted | C. the effect that a glacier had on the geography of the land | D. the effect that a glacier had on the chemistry of the water |
Question 97: It is NOT true according to paragraph 2 that during glacial periods _________. A. France and England were connected | B. Japan was a cluster of distinct islands | C. Java was attached to Asia | D. North America and Asia were connected |
Question 98: According to paragraph 3, prehistoric people ________. A. failed to adapt to environmental changes | B. tended to stay in one place during the Ice Age | C. lived only in the grassland areas of Asia | D. were living in the less frigid parts of Europe |
Question 99: The phrase “in response to” in paragraph 3 could be replaced by _________. A. to provide an answer to | B. in reaction to | C. resulting in | D. with knowledge of |
Question 100: What is NOT true about prehistoric people, according to paragraph 3? A. They made changes in what they ate. | B. They used basic tools. | C. They did not live out in the open. | D. They did not wear clothing. |
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